156-215.80 | Refresh 156-215.80 Exam For Check Point Certified Security Administrator Certification

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NEW QUESTION 1

What is the order of NAT priorities?

  • A. Static NAT, IP pool NAT, hide NAT
  • B. IP pool NAT, static NAT, hide NAT
  • C. Static NAT, automatic NAT, hide NAT
  • D. Static NAT, hide NAT, IP pool NAT

Answer: A

Explanation:
The order of NAT priorities is:
Static NAT
IP Pool NAT
Hide NAT
Since Static NAT has all of the advantages of IP Pool NAT and more, it has a higher priority than the other NAT methods.

NEW QUESTION 2

In Logging and Monitoring, the tracking options are Log, Detailed Log and Extended Log. Which of the following options can you add to each Log, Detailed Log and Extended Log?

  • A. Accounting
  • B. Suppression
  • C. Accounting/Suppression
  • D. Accounting/Extended

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 3

Fill in the blank: The R80 utility fw monitor is used to troubleshoot _______

  • A. User data base corruption
  • B. LDAP conflicts
  • C. Traffic issues
  • D. Phase two key negotiation

Answer: C

Explanation:
Check Point's FW Monitor is a powerful built-in tool for capturing network traffic at the packet level. The Monitor utility captures network packets at multiple capture points along the FireWall inspection chains. These captured packets can be inspected later using the WireShark

NEW QUESTION 4

Fill in the blank: A ____ is used by a VPN gateway to send traffic as if it were a physical interface.

  • A. VPN Tunnel Interface
  • B. VPN community
  • C. VPN router
  • D. VPN interface

Answer: A

Explanation:
Route Based VPN
VPN traffic is routed according to the routing settings (static or dynamic) of the Security Gateway operating system. The Security Gateway uses a VTI (VPN Tunnel Interface) to send the VPN traffic as if it were a physical interface. The VTIs of Security Gateways in a VPN community connect and can support dynamic routing protocols.

NEW QUESTION 5

When an encrypted packet is decrypted, where does this happen?

  • A. Security policy
  • B. Inbound chain
  • C. Outbound chain
  • D. Decryption is not supported

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 6

What two ordered layers make up the Access Control Policy Layer?

  • A. URL Filtering and Network
  • B. Network and Threat Prevention
  • C. Application Control and URL Filtering
  • D. Network and Application Control

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 7

Where do we need to reset the SIC on a gateway object?

  • A. SmartDashboard > Edit Gateway Object > General Properties > Communication
  • B. SmartUpdate > Edit Security Management Server Object > SIC
  • C. SmartUpdate > Edit Gateway Object > Communication
  • D. SmartDashboard > Edit Security Management Server Object > SIC

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 8

Which application should you use to install a contract file?

  • A. SmartView Monitor
  • B. WebUI
  • C. SmartUpdate
  • D. SmartProvisioning

Answer: C

Explanation:
Using SmartUpdate: If you already use an NGX R65 (or higher) Security Management / Provider-1 /
Multi-Domain Management Server, SmartUpdate allows you to import the service contract file that you have downloaded in Step #3.
Open SmartUpdate and from the Launch Menu select 'Licenses & Contracts' -> 'Update Contracts' -> 'From File...' and provide the path to the file you have downloaded in Step #3:
156-215.80 dumps exhibit
Note: If SmartUpdate is connected to the Internet, you can download the service contract file directly from the UserCenter without going through the download and import steps.

NEW QUESTION 9

Fill in the blank: Authentication rules are defined for ____ .

  • A. User groups
  • B. Users using UserCheck
  • C. Individual users
  • D. All users in the database

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 10

What are the three essential components of the Check Point Security Management Architecture?

  • A. SmartConsole, Security Management Server, Security Gateway
  • B. SmartConsole, SmartUpdate, Security Gateway
  • C. Security Management Server, Security Gateway, Command Line Interface
  • D. WebUI, SmartConsole, Security Gateway

Answer: A

Explanation:
Standalone deployment - Security Gateway and the Security Management server are installed on the same machine.
Distributed deployment - Security Gateway and the Security Management server are installed on different machines.
Deployments
Basic deployments:
156-215.80 dumps exhibit
Assume an environment with gateways on different sites. Each Security Gateway connects to the Internet on one side, and to a LAN on the other.
You can create a Virtual Private Network (VPN) between the two Security Gateways, to secure all communication between them.
The Security Management server is installed in the LAN, and is protected by a Security Gateway. The Security Management server manages the Security Gateways and lets remote users connect securely to the corporate network. SmartDashboard can be installed on the Security Management server or another computer.
There can be other OPSEC-partner modules (for example, an Anti-Virus Server) to complete the network security with the Security Management server and its Security Gateways.

NEW QUESTION 11

Fill in the blanks. There are _____ types of software containers ______

  • A. Three; security managemen
  • B. Security Gateway and endpoint security.
  • C. Three; Security Gateway, endpoint Security, and gateway management.
  • D. Two; security management and endpoint security
  • E. Two; endpoint security and Security Gateway

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 12

Under which file is the proxy arp configuration stored?

  • A. $FWDIR/state/proxy_arp.conf on the management server
  • B. $FWDIR/conf/local.arp on the management server
  • C. $FWDIR/state/_tmp/proxy.arp on the security gateway
  • D. $FWDIR/conf/local.arp on the gateway

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 13

You are working with multiple Security Gateways enforcing an extensive number of rules. To simplify security administration, which action would you choose?

  • A. Eliminate all possible contradictory rules such as the Stealth or Cleanup rules.
  • B. Create a separate Security Policy package for each remote Security Gateway.
  • C. Create network object that restrict all applicable rules to only certain networks.
  • D. Run separate SmartConsole instances to login and configure each Security Gateway directly.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 14

Which of the following is NOT a set of Regulatory Requirements related to Information Security?

  • A. ISO 37001
  • B. Sarbanes Oxley (SOX)
  • C. HIPPA
  • D. PCI

Answer: A

Explanation:
ISO 37001 - Anti-bribery management systems

NEW QUESTION 15

Which repositories are installed on the Security Management Server by SmartUpdate?

  • A. License and Update
  • B. Package Repository and Licenses
  • C. Update and License and Contract
  • D. License and Contract and Package Repository

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 16

What is the default shell of Gaia CLI?

  • A. Monitor
  • B. CLI.sh
  • C. Read-only
  • D. Bash

Answer: B

Explanation:
This chapter gives an introduction to the Gaia command line interface (CLI). The default shell of the CLI is called clish.

NEW QUESTION 17

Which type of Check Point license is tied to the IP address of a specific Security Gateway and cannot be transferred to a gateway that has a different IP address?

  • A. Central
  • B. Corporate
  • C. Formal
  • D. Local

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 18

According to Check Point Best Practice, when adding a non-managed Check Point Gateway to a Check Point security solution what object SHOULD be added? A(n):

  • A. Gateway
  • B. Interoperable Device
  • C. Externally managed gateway
  • D. Network Node

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 19

SmartEvent does NOT use which of the following procedures to identity events:

  • A. Matching a log against each event definition
  • B. Create an event candidate
  • C. Matching a log against local exclusions
  • D. Matching a log against global exclusions

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 20

What are the two high availability modes?

  • A. Load Sharing and Legacy
  • B. Traditional and New
  • C. Active and Standby
  • D. New and Legacy

Answer: D

Explanation:
ClusterXL has four working modes. This section briefly describes each mode and its relative advantages and disadvantages.
Load Sharing Multicast Mode
Load Sharing Unicast Mode
New High Availability Mode
High Availability Legacy Mode

NEW QUESTION 21

Packet acceleration (SecureXL) identifies connections by several attributes. Which of the attributes is NOT used for identifying connection?

  • A. Source Address
  • B. Destination Address
  • C. TCP Acknowledgment Number
  • D. Source Port

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 22

The WebUI offers three methods for downloading Hotfixes via CPUSE. One of them is Automatic method. How many times per day will CPUSE agent check for hotfixes and automatically download them?

  • A. Six times per day
  • B. Seven times per day
  • C. Every two hours
  • D. Every three hours

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 23

A digital signature:

  • A. Guarantees the authenticity and integrity of a message.
  • B. Automatically exchanges shared keys.
  • C. Decrypts data to its original form.
  • D. Provides a secure key exchange mechanism over the Internet.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 24

Sally has a Hot Fix Accumulator (HFA) she wants to install on her Security Gateway which operates with GAiA, but she cannot SCP the HFA to the system. She can SSH into the Security Gateway, but she has never been able to SCP files to it. What would be the most likely reason she cannot do so?

  • A. She needs to edit /etc/SSHd/SSHd_config and add the Standard Mode account.
  • B. She needs to run sysconfig and restart the SSH process.
  • C. She needs to edit /etc/scpusers and add the Standard Mode account.
  • D. She needs to run cpconfig to enable the ability to SCP files.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 25

Which policy type is used to enforce bandwidth and traffic control rules?

  • A. Threat Emulation
  • B. Access Control
  • C. QoS
  • D. Threat Prevention

Answer: C

Explanation:
Check Point's QoS Solution
QoS is a policy-based QoS management solution from Check Point Software Technologies Ltd., satisfies your needs for a bandwidth management solution. QoS is a unique, software-only based application that manages traffic end-to-end across networks, by distributing enforcement throughout network hardware and software.

NEW QUESTION 26
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