350-501 | Improve 350-501 Practice Test For Implementing And Operating Cisco Service Provider Network Core Technologies Certification
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NEW QUESTION 1
Which utility can you use to locate MPLS faults?
- A. MPLS LSP ping
- B. QoS
- C. MPLS traceroute
- D. EEM
NEW QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement supports QPPB implementation?
- A. QPPB policies affect only egress traffic.
- B. QoS policies rely exclusively on BGP attributes to manipulate traffic.
- C. QoS policies are identified in the MPLS forwarding table.
- D. QoS policies use BGP to gain full coverage on the network.
NEW QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration prevents the OSPF neighbor from establishing?
- A. default-metric
- B. duplex
- C. network statement
- D. mtu
NEW QUESTION 4
How can a network administrator secure rest APIs?
- A. They can have a general administrator login for multiple users to access that has command entries logged.
- B. They can authenticate user sessions and provide the appropriate privilege level.
- C. They can ensure that user sessions are authenticated using TACACS+ only.
- D. They can allow read and write privileges to all users.
NEW QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is implementing a BGP protocol. Which effect of the local-as keyword in this configuration is true?
- A. It enables peer 192.168.1.2 to establish a BGP relationship with R1 using AS 65012 without additional configuration.
- B. It enables peer 192.168.1.2 to establish a BGP relationship with R1 using AS 65112 and the VPNv4 address family.
- C. It enables peer 192.168.1.2 to establish a BGP relationship with R1 using AS 65012 and the VPNv4 address family.
- D. It enables peer 192.168.1.2 to establish a BGP relationship with R1 using AS 65112 without additional configuration.
NEW QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibits. Which information is provided for traceback analysis when this configuration is applied?
- A. source interface
- B. packet size distribution
- C. IP sub flow cache
- D. BGP version
NEW QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement about the status of the neighbor relationship between R1 and R2 is true?
- A. The neighbor relationship is down because the two routers are configured with different area types.
- B. The neighbor relationship is down because the two routers are in the same subnet.
- C. The neighbor relationship is up because R2 is level 1 and Ievel 2 router.
- D. The neighbor relationship is down because R2 is operating as a Level 1 router and the two routers are in different areas.
NEW QUESTION 8
Which statement describes the advantage of a Multi-Layer control plane?
- A. It provides multivendor configuration capabilities for Layer 3 to Layer 1.
- B. It automatically provisions, monitors, and manages traffic across Layer 0 to Layer 3.
- C. It supports dynamic wavelength restoration in Layer 0.
- D. It minimizes human error configuring converged networks.
NEW QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit. Which three outcomes occur if the prefix list is added to the neighbor? (Choose three.)
- A. 192.168.0.0/16 is denied.
- B. 192.168.0.0/16 is permitted.
- C. 192.168.0.0/19 is permitted
- D. 192.168.0.0/19 is denied.
- E. 192.168.0.0/17 is permitted
- F. 192.168.0.0/17 is denied.
NEW QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit. Which condition must be met by the OSPF peer of router R1 before the two devices can establish communication?
- A. The OSPF peer must use clear-text authentication.
- B. The OSPF peer must be configured as an OSPF stub router.
- C. The interface on the OSPF peer may have a different key ID, but it must use the same key value as the configured interface.
- D. The interface on the OSPF peer must use the same key ID and key value as the configured interface.
NEW QUESTION 11
What do Ansible and SaltStack have in common?
- A. They both have agents running on the client machine.
- B. They both can be designed with more than one master server.
- C. They both use DSL configuration language.
- D. They both use YAML configuration language.
NEW QUESTION 12
After you analyze your network environment, you decide to implement a full separation model for Internet access and MPLS L3VPN services. For which reason do you make this decision?
- A. It enables EGP and IGP to operate independently.
- B. It enables you to choose whether to separate or centralize each individual service.
- C. It is easier to manage a system in which services are mixed.
- D. It requires only one edge router.
NEW QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit. What is the URL used for with REST API?
- A. It is used to initiate an FTP session to save a running configuration of a device.
- B. It is used to send a message to the APIC to perform an operation on a managed object or class operator.
- C. It is used to contact a URL filter to determine the efficacy of a web address.
- D. It is used to send a TACACS + authentication request to a server.
NEW QUESTION 14
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement about this configuration is true?
- A. It requires a dynamic Cisco MPLS TE path to be configured for the tunnel to run.
- B. It requires OSPF to also be running to have optimized Cisco MPLS TE tunnels.
- C. It is the configuration for the head-end router of a Cisco MPLS TE tunnel with segment routing.
- D. It requires an explicit Cisco MPLS TE path to be configured for the tunnel to run.
NEW QUESTION 15
Refer to the exhibit. If the NetFlow configuration is updated to version 9, which additional piece of information can be reported?
- A. IPv4 flow information
- B. BGP AS information
- C. IPv6 flow information
- D. flow sequence numbers
NEW QUESTION 16
Refer to the exhibit. This output is included at the end of an output that was provided by a device using NETCONF. What does the code show?
- A. It shows that the full configuration is being modeled by YANG.
- B. It shows NETCONF uses remote procedure calls.
- C. It shows the hostname of the device as rpc-reply.
- D. It shows that the running configuration is blank.
NEW QUESTION 17
Refer to the exhibit. What does the REST API command do?
- A. It removes the information identified by Descriptions.xml.
- B. It executes the information specified in Descriptions.xml.
- C. It retrieves the information requested by Descriptions.xml.
- D. It displays the information identified by Descriptions.xml.
NEW QUESTION 18
Refer to the exhibit. Which command is used to complete this configuration for QoS class-based marking?
- A. PE-A(config-pmap-c)#set dscp ef
- B. PE-A(config-pmap-c)#priority
- C. PE-A(config-pmap-c)#random-detect
- D. PE-A(config-pmap-c)#fair-queue
NEW QUESTION 19
Refer to the exhibit. P3 and PE4 are at the edge of the service provider core and serve as ABR routers. Aggregation areas are on either side of the core. Which statement about the architecture is true?
- A. To support seamless MPLS, the BGP route reflector feature must be disabled.
- B. If each area is running its own IGP, BGP must provide an end-to-end MPLS LSP.
- C. If each area is running its own IGP, the ABR routers must redistribute the IGP routing table into BGP.
- D. To support seamless MPLS, TDP must be used as the label protocol.
NEW QUESTION 20
In an MPLS network, which protocol can be used to distribute a Segment Prefix?
- A. LDP
- B. EIGRP
- C. OSPF
- D. RSVP-TE
NEW QUESTION 21
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