400-201 | Highest Quality 400-201 Preparation Exams 2020
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NEW QUESTION 1
Which two QoS mark methods can a service use to mark user traffic and be visible only internally to the router? (Choose two)
- A. 802.1p
- B. DS-TE
- C. discard-class
- D. ToS
- E. QoS-group
- F. MPLS EXP bits
- G. DSCP
NEW QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit.
Which command group does a network administrator use to filter out R3 (22.214.171.124 subnet) from the R4 routing table?
- A. R4(config)# router ospf 1 distribute-list prefix-list filter in
- B. R2(config)# router ospf 1 distribute-list prefix-list filter out Fa0/1
- C. R4(config)# router ospf1 distribute-list prefix-list filter in Fa 0/0
- D. R3(config)# router ospf 1 distribute-list prefix-list filter out Fa 0/0
NEW QUESTION 3
Which protocol supports exporting of fields extracted from BAR?
- A. IPFIX
- B. SNMP
- C. Sysolg
- D. NetFlow
- E. RSPAN
NEW QUESTION 4
What best describes the usage of Route-Target rewrite?
- A. Route-Target Rewrite is mainly used in Inter-AS MPLS-VPN deployments and is configured at the Route-Reflector in originating AS ASBR to avoid misconfiguration in Route-Target assignment for VPN configurations.
- B. Route-Target Rewrite is mainly used in Inter-AS MPLS-VPN deployments and is configured at the ASBR to avoid misconfiguration in Route-Target assignment for VPN configurations.
- C. Route-Target Rewrite is mainly used in Inter-AS MPLS-VPN deployments and is configured at the PE router in originating AS ASBR to avoid misconfiguration in Route- Target assignment for VPN configurations.
- D. None of the above.
NEW QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.
Which IPv6 deployment feature is displayed?
- A. MPLS 6PE
- B. MPLS 6VPE
- C. 6 to 4 Replay Service
- D. native IPv6 over MPLS
- E. 6 to 4 Tunnel
NEW QUESTION 6
Two islands of IPv6 networks that are running ISIS (IPv6 IGP) must be connected using a tunnel over an IPv4 network. Which tunneling method can be used to achieve this goal?
- A. GRE tunnels
- B. automatic 6 to 4 tunnels
- C. ISATAP tunnels
- D. manual tunnels (RFC 2893)
GRE has a protocol field that identifies the passenger protocol. GRE tunnels allow Intermediate System-to-Intermediate System (IS-IS) or IPv6 to be specified as a passenger protocol, which allows both IS-IS and IPv6 traffic to run over the same tunnel. If GRE did not have a protocol field, it would be impossible to distinguish whether the tunnel was carrying IS-IS or IPv6 packets. The GRE protocol field is why it is desirable that you tunnel IS-IS and IPv6 inside GRE
NEW QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit. A service provider engineer has a requirement to configure an Inter-AS L3VPN with a maximum of one LSP between PE-1 and PE-2. Which two configurations are required to accomplish this goal? (Choose two)
- A. next-hop-self on ASBR's
- B. redistribute bgp on ASBR's
- C. nest-hop-self on RR's
- D. next-hop-unchanged on RR's
- E. ip route on ASBR's
- F. redistribute connected on ASBR's
- G. next-hop-unchanged on ASBR's
NEW QUESTION 8
A service provider is using Cisco ME 3400 Series Ethernet Access Switches on the edge of a Metro Ethernet POP. A customer has a requirement to connect a switch to the network and requires the ability to trunk VLANs on the uplink port into the provider network. Which port type should the engineer configure on the switch to meet this requirement while maintaining a secure edge implementation?
- A. UNI
- B. ENI
- C. NNI
- D. Access
NEW QUESTION 9
A router has this error in the syslog message What issue has it reported ?
- A. The BGP label 3 can be used only in a BGP VPNv4 update for a directly connected VPNv4 prefix of the sending PE router
- B. The BGP label 3 can be used only in a BGP VPNv4 update for multicast address-family
- C. The BGP label 3 can be used only in a BGP VPNv4 update if the RD is 0:0
- D. The BGP label 3 can be used as a label for a VPNv4 prefix
NEW QUESTION 10
Which ADSL implementation type involves configuring the ATU-R PPP authentication information (Login and Password), Which provides per sessions Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting without requiring PPP client on each PC on the subscriber Side?
- A. PPPoE
- B. PPPoA
- C. RFC 1483 Routing
- D. RFC 1483 Bridge
NEW QUESTION 11
In which modes does selective packet discard (SPD) operate? (Choose three.)
- A. discard
- B. random
- C. normal
- D. full
- E. select
NEW QUESTION 12
SNMPv3 provides which three security features?(Choose three)
- A. DES 56-bit encryption
- B. Encrypted user password
- C. Private community information that is exchanged out-of-band
- D. Device hostname that is authenticated via AES algorithm
- E. Message integrity
- F. Authentication that is based on MD5 or SHA algorithms
NEW QUESTION 13
What Cisco IOS feature examines packets received to make sure that the source address and interface are in the routing table and match the interface that the packet was received on?
- A. MPLS Traffic Engineering
- B. Receive ACL
- C. Unicast RPF
- D. Authentication
- E. Dynamic access-lists
NEW QUESTION 14
How many messages does Internet Key Exchange (IKE) use to negotiate SA characteristics when running in main mode?
- A. 3 messages
- B. 6 messages
- C. 4 messages
- D. 2 messages
- E. 5 messages
3.1.1 Main Mode
The Main Mode is an exchange in the first phase of IKE/ISAKMP (The ISAKMP Identity Protection Exchange) the first two messages are used for negotiating the security policy for the exchange. The next two messages are used for the Diffie-Hellman keying material exchange. The last two messages are used for authenticating the peers with signatures or hashes and optional certificates. Last two authentication messages are encrypted with the previously negotiated key and the identities of the parties are protected from eavesdroppers.
NEW QUESTION 15
Which two requirements to deploy 6PE and 6VPE solutions are mandatory? (Choose two.)
- A. MPLS is enabled on the core, distribution, and edge devices.
- B. A triple stack is enabled on PE devices.
- C. The network has at least six PE devices.
- D. A dual stack is enabled on all the P and PE devices in a network.
NEW QUESTION 16
Which two components are shared across secure domain routers? (Choose two)
- A. Fabric
- B. CPU
- C. Memory
- D. Fans
- E. Forwarding engine
NEW QUESTION 17
A service provider is using multicast flows to provide streaming video content to its customers. Video streams are sometimes interrupted, and network instability is determined to be the cause. Which action should the service provider take to decrease the burden on the router resources in an unstable unicast routing environment?
- A. increase the PIM hello hold timers
- B. reduce the volume of query messages
- C. filter unnecessary SA messages
- D. tune the RPF backoff
NEW QUESTION 18
A network engineer observes increasing output drops on the serial interface. Which two solutions can be implemented to minimize these drops? (Choose two.)
- A. Increase the MTU size on the link.
- B. Replace the serial cable between the connecting devices.
- C. Turn on fast switching.
- D. Increase the output hold queue size.
- E. Implement priority queuing on slower serial links by configuring priority lists.
NEW QUESTION 19
Which controller uses policy-based application profiles?
- A. OpenStack
- B. Cisco Open SDN controller
- C. OpenFlow Controller
- D. Cisco APIC
- E. Cisco UCS director
NEW QUESTION 20
Refer to the exhibit. The NOC team received multiple reports about poor quality of the VoIP traffic. An engineer notices that all VoIP traffic with poor quality uses Core links with QoS implemented. Which are the two reasons for this issue? (Choose two)
- A. A DoS attack on the core routers has caused high CPU utilization on the line cards that hosts the 10 Gigabit Ethernet port.
- B. The VoIP traffic exceeding 1 GBPS is dropped by the policer
- C. The Core links are congested, which causes stavation of VoIP traffic
- D. The Bandwidth allocated is higher than 100 percent
- E. The VoiP traffic on the core links is MPLS-labeled and it is not subject to QoS
NEW QUESTION 21
Which three security mechanisms are used to mitigate or protect against DoS attacks that are targeted at a router? (Choose three)
- A. NSR
- B. GSTM
- C. uRPF
- D. BFD
- E. FRR
- F. CoPP
NEW QUESTION 22
Which type of mVPN core tree does the Rosen mLDP profile use to signal individual P2MP LSP that are mapped to SGs?
- A. S-PMSI
- B. MS-PMSI
- C. partitioned MDT
- D. MI-PMSI
NEW QUESTION 23
In an NFV environment, what is the role of an SDN controller?
- A. Dynamically controls all of the software components
- B. Spins up the VMs that are required to build the NFVs
- C. Dynamically scales up and scales down VM resources
- D. Connects the virtualized networking devices through a common policy-based model
NEW QUESTION 24
Refer to the exhibit. a network engineer is troubleshooting PTP on the Cisco ASR 9000
router. what can be concluded about the interface based on output provided ?
- A. The interface is aware of a better clock than the one it would advertise if it was in master state.
- B. the interface is about to go into master state
- C. the interface receives times stamps from a master clock, but the routers clock is not yet synchronized to the master
- D. the interface is not yet ready to participate on PTP
NEW QUESTION 25
Which are the two limitations of the predefined NAT solution? (Choose two)
- A. Only the port-presentation option is available
- B. NetFlow and syslog are not supported
- C. The predefined mode cannot be turned on or off during the active translations
- D. Port allocation must be uniform for all subscribers
- E. The global port limit parameter is not available for the predefined mode
NEW QUESTION 26
Which two implementations are standard Virtual Private LAN Service (VPLS) implementations that are supported by the IETF? (Choose two)
- A. VPLS uses LDP for signaling.
- B. VPLS uses BGP for autodiscovery and signaling.
- C. VPLS uses extended IS-IS for signaling
- D. VPLS uses OSPF version 3 for auto discovery and signaling
- E. VPLS uses spanning tree for signaling
NEW QUESTION 27
Which two statements about 10 Gigabit Ethernet (10GE) are true? (Choose two.)
- A. 10 Gigabit Ethernet does not support VLAN definition
- B. 10 Gigabit Ethernet supports full duplex links, but does not support half duplex links.
- C. 10 Gigabit Ethernet supports unshielded or shielded twisted-pair cable connections
- D. 10 Gigabit Ethernet supports Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Detection (CSMA/CD).
- E. 10 Gigabit Ethernet supports optical fiber connections in single mode onl
- F. Multi mode is not supported.
NEW QUESTION 28
Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer from ISP 2 is designing the BGP architecture with a requirement of preventing their customer AS 65001 from becoming a transit AS, using the following configuration.
Router BGP 65000
Neighbor 10.0.0.1 remote-as 65001
Neighbor 10.0.0.1 route-map BGP-ROUTE-policy in
Which Cisco IOS command should be used within the route-map to achieve the goal on ISP 2 from AS 65000?
route-map BGP-ROUTE-POLICY permit 10 set community no-advertise additive
ip as-path access-lists 1 permit^65001$
route-map BGP-ROUTE-POLICY deny 10 match as-path 1
route-map BGP-ROUTE-POLICY permit 10
ip as-path access-list 1 permit^65001$
route-map BGP-ROUTE-POLICY permit 10 match as-path 1
route-map BGP-ROUTE-POLICY permit 10
set community no-export additive
NEW QUESTION 29
Refer to the exhibit. All links have same bandwidth configured AS 4, AS 4 and AS 7 run OSPF as IGP using default metric values. Which two statements are correct in regards to MSDP SA messages received by R5 located in AS 7? ( Choose two)
- A. All MSDP SA messages from R1 and R2 via R4 will be dropped
- B. All MSDP SA messages from R1 and R2 via R3 will be accepted
- C. All MSDP SA messages from R1 and R2 via R3 will be dropped
- D. All MSDP SA messages from R1 and R2 via R3 will be dropped and all MSDP SA messages from R2 via R4 will be dropped
- E. All MSDP SA messages from R1 and R2 via R4 will be accepted
- F. All MSDP SA messages from R1 via R3 will be accepted and all MSDP SA messages from R2 Via R4 will be accepted
NEW QUESTION 30
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