CAS-003 | CompTIA CAS-003 Exam Questions and Answers 2021

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A software project manager has been provided with a requirement from the customer to place limits on the types of transactions a given user can initiate without external interaction from another user with elevated privileges. This requirement is BEST described as an implementation of:

  • A. an administrative control
  • B. dual control
  • C. separation of duties
  • D. least privilege
  • E. collusion

Answer: C

Explanation: Separation of duties requires more than one person to complete a task. Incorrect Answers:
A: Administrative controls refer policies, procedures, guidelines, and other documents used by an organization.
B: Dual control forces employees who are planning anything illegal to work together to complete critical actions.
D: The principle of least privilege prevents employees from accessing levels not required to perform their everyday function.
E: Collusion is defined as an agreement which occurs between two or more persons to deceive, mislead, or defraud others of legal rights.
Gregg, Michael, and Billy Haines, CASP CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner Study Guide, John Wiley & Sons, Indianapolis, 2012, pp. 245, 321

There have been some failures of the company’s internal facing website. A security engineer has found the WAF to be the root cause of the failures. System logs show that the WAF has been unavailable for 14 hours over the past month, in four separate situations. One of these situations was a two hour scheduled maintenance time, aimed at improving the stability of the WAF. Using the MTTR based on the last month’s performance figures, which of the following calculations is the percentage of uptime assuming there were 722 hours in the month?

  • A. 92.24 percent
  • B. 98.06 percent
  • C. 98.34 percent
  • D. 99.72 percent

Answer: B

Explanation: A web application firewall (WAF) is an appliance, server plugin, or filter that applies a set of rules to an HTTP conversation. Generally, these rules cover common attacks such as cross-site scripting (XSS) and SQL injection. By customizing the rules to your application, many attacks can be identified and blocked.
14h of down time in a period of 772 supposed uptime = 14/772 x 100 = 1.939 % Thus the % of uptime = 100% - 1.939% = 98.06%
Gregg, Michael, and Billy Haines, CASP CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner Study Guide, John Wiley & Sons, Indianapolis, 2012, pp. 43, 116

A security consultant is considering authentication options for a financial institution. The following authentication options are available security mechanism to the appropriate use case. Options may be used once.
CAS-003 dumps exhibit


    Explanation: CAS-003 dumps exhibit

    An organization has established the following controls matrix:
    CAS-003 dumps exhibit
    The following control sets have been defined by the organization and are applied in aggregate fashion:
    Systems containing PII are protected with the minimum control set. Systems containing medical data are protected at the moderate level. Systems containing cardholder data are protected at the high level.
    The organization is preparing to deploy a system that protects the confidentially of a database containing PII and medical data from clients. Based on the controls classification, which of the following controls would BEST meet these requirements?

    • A. Proximity card access to the server room, context-based authentication, UPS, and full-disk encryption for the database server.
    • B. Cipher lock on the server room door, FDE, surge protector, and static analysis of all application code.
    • C. Peer review of all application changes, static analysis of application code, UPS, and penetration testing of the complete system.
    • D. Intrusion detection capabilities, network-based IPS, generator, and context-based authenticatio

    Answer: D

    The helpdesk is receiving multiple calls about slow and intermittent Internet access from the finance department. The following information is compiled:
    Caller 1, IP, NETMASK
    Caller 2, IP, NETMASK
    Caller 3, IP, NETMASK
    All callers are connected to the same switch and are routed by a router with five built-in interfaces. The upstream router interface’s MAC is 00-01-42-32-ab-1a
    A packet capture shows the following:
    09:05:15.934840 arp reply is-at 00:01:42:32:ab:1a (00:01:42:32:ab:1a)
    09:06:16.124850 arp reply is-at 00:01:42:32:ab:1a (00:01:42:32:ab:1a)
    09:07:25.439811 arp reply is-at 00:01:42:32:ab:1a (00:01:42:32:ab:1a)
    09:08:10.937590 IP > ICMP echo request, id 2305, seq 1, length 65534
    09:08:10.937591 IP > ICMP echo request, id 2306, seq 2, length 65534
    09:08:10.937592 IP > ICMP echo request, id 2307, seq 3, length 65534
    Which of the following is occurring on the network?

    • A. A man-in-the-middle attack is underway on the network.
    • B. An ARP flood attack is targeting at the router.
    • C. The default gateway is being spoofed on the network.
    • D. A denial of service attack is targeting at the route

    Answer: D

    Explanation: The above packet capture shows an attack where the attacker is busy consuming your resources (in this case the router) and preventing normal use. This is thus a Denial Of Service Attack.
    Incorrect Answers:
    A: A man-in-the-middle attack is when an attacker intercepts and perhaps changes the data that is transmitted between two users. The packet capture is not indicative of a man-in-the-middle attack. B: With an ARP flood attack thousands of spoofed data packets with different physical addresses are sent to a device. This is not the case here.
    C: A gateway being spoofed show up as any random number that the attacker feels like listing as the caller. This is not what is exhibited in this case.
    Gregg, Michael, and Billy Haines, CASP CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner Study Guide, John Wiley & Sons, Indianapolis, 2012, p. 286

    ABC Corporation has introduced token-based authentication to system administrators due to the risk of password compromise. The tokens have a set of HMAC counter-based codes and are valid until they are used. Which of the following types of authentication mechanisms does this statement describe?

    • A. TOTP
    • B. PAP
    • C. CHAP
    • D. HOTP

    Answer: D

    Explanation: The question states that the HMAC counter-based codes and are valid until they are used. These are “one-time” use codes.
    HOTP is an HMAC-based one-time password (OTP) algorithm.
    HOTP can be used to authenticate a user in a system via an authentication server. Also, if some more steps are carried out (the server calculates subsequent OTP value and sends/displays it to the user who checks it against subsequent OTP value calculated by his token), the user can also authenticate the validation server.
    Both hardware and software tokens are available from various vendors. Hardware tokens implementing OATH HOTP tend to be significantly cheaper than their competitors based on proprietary algorithms. Some products can be used for strong passwords as well as OATH HOTP. Software tokens are available for (nearly) all major mobile/smartphone platforms.
    Incorrect Answers:
    A: TOTP is Time-based One-time Password. This is similar to the one-time password system used in this question. However, TOTPs expire after a period of time. In this question, the passwords (codes) expire after first use regardless of the timing of the first use.
    B: PAP (Password Authentication Protocol) is a simple authentication protocol in which the user name and password is sent to a remote access server in a plaintext (unencrypted) form. PAP is not what is described in this question.
    C: CHAP (Challenge-Handshake Authentication Protocol) is an authentication protocol that provides protection against replay attacks by the peer through the use of an incrementally changing identifier and of a variable challenge-value. CHAP requires that both the client and server know the plaintext of the secret, although it is never sent over the network. CHAP is not what is described in this question.
    References: ""Password_Algorithm

    A forensic analyst receives a hard drive containing malware quarantined by the antivirus application. After creating an image and determining the directory location of the malware file, which of the following helps to determine when the system became infected?

    • A. The malware file’s modify, access, change time properties.
    • B. The timeline analysis of the file system.
    • C. The time stamp of the malware in the swap file.
    • D. The date/time stamp of the malware detection in the antivirus log

    Answer: B

    Explanation: Timelines can be used in digital forensics to identify when activity occurred on a computer. Timelines are mainly used for data reduction or identifying specific state changes that have occurred on a computer.
    Incorrect Answers:
    A: This option will not help to determine when the system became infected.
    C: A swap file is a space on a hard disk used as the virtual memory extension of a computer's real memory, which allows your computer's operating system to pretend that you have more RAM than you actually do.
    D: This will tell you when the antivirus detected the malware, not when the system became infected. References: http://searchwindowsserver.techtarget.cHYPERLINK "" om/definition/swap-file-swap-space-or-pagefile

    During a routine network scan, a security administrator discovered an unidentified service running on a new embedded and unmanaged HVAC controller, which is used to monitor the company's datacenter
    Port state 161/UDP open 162/UDP open 163/TCP open
    The enterprise monitoring service requires SNMP and SNMPTRAP connectivity to operate. Which of the following should the security administrator implement to harden the system?

    • A. Patch and restart the unknown services.
    • B. Segment and firewall the controller's network
    • C. Disable the unidentified service on the controller.
    • D. Implement SNMPv3 to secure communication.
    • E. Disable TCP/UDP PORTS 161 THROUGH 163

    Answer: D

    A security engineer is embedded with a development team to ensure security is built into products being developed. The security engineer wants to ensure developers are not blocked by a large number of security requirements applied at specific schedule points. Which of the following solutions BEST meets the engineer’s goal?

    • A. Schedule weekly reviews of al unit test results with the entire development team and follow up between meetings with surprise code inspections.
    • B. Develop and implement a set of automated security tests to be installed on each development team leader’s workstation.
    • C. Enforce code quality and reuse standards into the requirements definition phase of the waterfall development process.
    • D. Deploy an integrated software tool that builds and tests each portion of code committed by developers and provides feedback.

    Answer: C

    Company XYZ has purchased and is now deploying a new HTML5 application. The company wants to hire a penetration tester to evaluate the security of the client and server components of the
    proprietary web application before launch. Which of the following is the penetration tester MOST likely to use while performing black box testing of the security of the company’s purchased
    application? (Select TWO).

    • A. Code review
    • B. Sandbox
    • C. Local proxy
    • D. Fuzzer
    • E. Port scanner

    Answer: CD

    Explanation: C: Local proxy will work by proxying traffic between the web client and the web server. This is a tool that can be put to good effect in this case.
    D: Fuzzing is another form of blackbox testing and works by feeding a program multiple input iterations that are specially written to trigger an internal error that might indicate a bug and crash it. Incorrect Answers:
    A: A Code review refers to the examination of an application (the new HTML5 application in this case) that is designed to identify and assess threats to the organization. But this is not the most likely test to be carried out when performing black box testing.
    B: Application sandboxing refers to the process of writing files to a temporary storage are (the socalled sandbox) so that you limit the ability of possible malicious code to execute on your computer.
    E: Port scanning is used to scan TCP and UDP ports and report on their status. You can thus determine which services are running on a targeted computer.
    Gregg, Michael, and Billy Haines, CASP CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner Study Guide, John Wiley & Sons, Indianapolis, 2012, pp. 147, 154, 168-169, 174

    Which of the following technologies prevents an unauthorized HBA from viewing iSCSI target information?

    • A. Deduplication
    • B. Data snapshots
    • C. LUN masking
    • D. Storage multipaths

    Answer: C

    Explanation: A logical unit number (LUN) is a unique identifier that designates individual hard disk devices or grouped devices for address by a protocol associated with a SCSI, iSCSI, Fibre Channel (FC) or similar interface. LUNs are central to the management of block storage arrays shared over a storage area network (SAN).
    LUN masking subdivides access to a given port. Then, even if several LUNs are accessed through the same port, the server masks can be set to limit each server's access to the appropriate LUNs. LUN masking is typically conducted at the host bus adapter (HBA) or switch level.
    Incorrect Answers:
    A: Deduplication is the process of eliminating multiple copies of the same data to save storage space. It does not prevent an unauthorized HBA from viewing iSCSI target information.
    B: Data snapshots are point in time copies of data often used by data backup applications. They do not prevent an unauthorized HBA from viewing iSCSI target information.
    D: Storage multipaths are when you have multiple connections to a storage device. This provides path redundancy in the event of a path failure and can also (in active/active configurations) provide extra capacity by aggregating the bandwidth of the multiple storage paths. However, they do not prevent an unauthorized HBA from viewing iSCSI target information.
    http://searchviHYPERLINK ""

    A newly hired systems administrator is trying to connect a new and fully updated, but very customized, Android device to access corporate resources. However, the MDM enrollment process continually fails. The administrator asks a security team member to look into the issue. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason the MDM is not allowing enrollment?

    • A. The OS version is not compatible
    • B. The OEM is prohibited
    • C. The device does not support FDE
    • D. The device is rooted

    Answer: D

    The Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) has asked the security team to determine whether the organization is susceptible to a zero-day explogt utilized in the banking industry and whether attribution is possible. The CISO has asked what process would be utilized to gather the information, and then wants to apply signatureless controls to stop these kinds of attacks in the future. Which of the following are the MOST appropriate ordered steps to take to meet the CISO’s request?

    • A. 1. Perform the ongoing research of the best practices2. Determine current vulnerabilities and threats3. Apply Big Data techniques4. Use antivirus control
    • B. 1. Apply artificial intelligence algorithms for detection2. Inform the CERT team3. Research threat intelligence and potential adversaries4. Utilize threat intelligence to apply Big Data techniques
    • C. 1. Obtain the latest IOCs from the open source repositories2. Perform a sweep across the network to identify positive matches3. Sandbox any suspicious files4. Notify the CERT team to apply a future proof threat model
    • D. 1. Analyze the current threat intelligence2. Utilize information sharing to obtain the latest industry IOCs3. Perform a sweep across the network to identify positive matches4. Apply machine learning algorithms

    Answer: C

    An administrator is tasked with securing several website domains on a web server. The administrator elects to secure,,, and with the same certificate. Which of the following would allow the administrator to secure those domains with a single issued certificate?

    • A. Intermediate Root Certificate
    • B. Wildcard Certificate
    • C. EV x509 Certificate
    • D. Subject Alternative Names Certificate

    Answer: D

    Explanation: Subject Alternative Names let you protect multiple host names with a single SSL certificate. Subject Alternative Names allow you to specify a list of host names to be protected by a single SSL certificate. When you order the certificate, you will specify one fully qualified domain name in the common name field. You can then add other names in the Subject Alternative Names field.
    Incorrect Answers:
    A: An Intermediate Root Certificate is used to trust an intermediate CA (Certification Authority). The Intermediate root CA can issue certificates but the Intermediate Root Certificate itself cannot be
    used to secure multiple domains on a web server.
    B: A wildcard certificate can be used to secure multiple domain names within the same higher level domain. For example: a wildcard certificate “*” can secure an unlimited number of domains that end in ‘’ such as, etc. A wildcard certificate cannot be used to secure the domains listed in this question.
    C: The certificate used to secure the domains will be an x509 certificate but it will not be a standard EV certificate. EV stands for extended validation. With a non-EV certificate, the issuing CA just ensures that you own the domains that you want to secure. With an EV certificate, further checks are carried out such as checks on your company. EV certificates take longer to issue due to the extra checks but the EV certificate provides extra guarantees to your customers that you are who you say you are. However, a standard EV certificate only secures a single domain.

    An accountant at a small business is trying to understand the value of a server to determine if the business can afford to buy another server for DR. The risk manager only provided the accountant with the SLE of $24,000, ARO of 20% and the exposure factor of 25%. Which of the following is the correct asset value calculated by the accountant?

    • A. $4,800
    • B. $24,000
    • C. $96,000
    • D. $120,000

    Answer: C

    Explanation: The annualized loss expectancy (ALE) is the product of the annual rate of occurrence (ARO) and the single loss expectancy (SLE). It is mathematically expressed as: ALE = ARO x SLE
    Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) is mathematically expressed as: Asset value (AV) x Exposure Factor (EF) Thus if SLE = $ 24,000 and EF = 25% then the Asset value is SLE/EF = $ 96,000
    References: ""nt

    An engineer needs to provide access to company resources for several offshore contractors. The contractors require:
    Access to a number of applications, including internal websites Access to database data and the ability to manipulate it
    The ability to log into Linux and Windows servers remotely
    Which of the following remote access technologies are the BEST choices to provide all of this access securely? (Choose two.)

    • A. VTC
    • B. VRRP
    • C. VLAN
    • D. VDI
    • E. VPN
    • F. Telnet

    Answer: DE

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