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NEW QUESTION 1
A pharmacy gives its clients online access to their records and the ability to review bills and make payments. A new SSL vulnerability on a special platform was discovered, allowing an attacker to capture the data between the end user and the web server providing these services. After invest the new vulnerability, it was determined that the web services providing are being impacted by this new threat. Which of the following data types a MOST likely at risk of exposure based on this new threat? (Select TWO)
- A. Cardholder data
- B. intellectual property
- C. Personal health information
- D. Employee records
- E. Corporate financial data
NEW QUESTION 2
Compliance with company policy requires a quarterly review of firewall rules. A new administrator is asked to conduct this review on the internal firewall sitting between several internal networks. The intent of this firewall is to make traffic more restrictive. Given the following information answer the questions below:
User Subnet: 192.168.1.0/24 Server Subnet: 192.168.2.0/24 Finance Subnet:192.168.3.0/24 Instructions: To perform the necessary tasks, please modify the DST port, Protocol, Action, and/or Rule Order columns. Firewall ACLs are read from the top down
Task 1) An administrator added a rule to allow their machine terminal server access to the server subnet. This rule is not working. Identify the rule and correct this issue.
Task 2) All web servers have been changed to communicate solely over SSL. Modify the appropriate rule to allow communications.
Task 3) An administrator added a rule to block access to the SQL server from anywhere on the network. This rule is not working. Identify and correct this issue.
Task 4) Other than allowing all hosts to do network time and SSL, modify a rule to ensure that no other traffic is allowed.
- A. Check the answer belowTask 1) An administrator added a rule to allow their machine terminal server access to the server subne
- B. This rule is not workin
- C. Identify the rule and correct this issue.The rule shown in the image below is the rule in questio
- D. It is not working because the action is set to Den
- E. This needs to be set to Permit.Task 2) All web servers have been changed to communicate solely over SS
- F. Modify the appropriate rule to allow communications.The web servers rule is shown in the image belo
- G. Port 80 (HTTP) needs to be changed to port 443 for HTTPS (HTTP over SSL).Task 3) An administrator added a rule to block access to the SQL server from anywhere on the networ
- H. This rule is not workin
- I. Identify and correct this issue.The SQL Server rule is shown in the image belo
- J. It is not working because the protocol is wron
- K. It should be TCP, not UDP.Task 4) Other than allowing all hosts to do network time and SSL, modify a rule to ensure that no other traffic is allowed.The network time rule is shown in the image below.However, this rule is not being used because the ‘any’ rule shown below allows all traffic and the rule is placed above the network time rul
- L. To block all other traffic, the ‘any’ rule needs to be set to Deny, not Permit and the rule needs to be placed below all the other rules (it needs to be placed atthe bottom of the list to the rule is enumerated last).
- M. Check the answer belowTask 1) An administrator added a rule to allow their machine terminal server access to the server subne
- N. This rule is not workin
- O. Identify the rule and correct this issue.The rule shown in the image below is the rule in questio
- P. It is not working because the action is set to Den
- Q. This needs to be set to Permit.Task 2) All web servers have been changed to communicate solely over SS
- R. Modify the appropriate rule to allow communications.The web servers rule is shown in the image belo
- S. Port 80 (HTTP) needs to be changed to port 443 for HTTPS (HTTP over SSL).Task 3) An administrator added a rule to block access to the SQL server from anywhere on the networ
- T. This rule is not workin
- U. Identify and correct this issue.The SQL Server rule is shown in the image belo
- V. It is not working because the protocol is wron
- W. It should be TCP, not UDP.Task 4) Other than allowing all hosts to do network time and SSL, modify a rule to ensure that noother traffic is allowed.The network time rule is shown in the image below.However, this rule is not being used because the ‘any’ rule shown below allows all traffic and the rule is placed above the network time rul
- X. To block all other traffic, the ‘any’ rule needs to be set to Deny, not Permit and the rule needs to be placed below all the other rules (it needs to be placed atthe bottom of the list to the rule is enumerated last).
NEW QUESTION 3
A security engineer is working with a software development team. The engineer is tasked with ensuring all security requirements are adhered to by the developers. Which of the following BEST describes the contents of the supporting document the engineer is creating?
- A. A series of ad-hoc tests that each verify security control functionality of the entire system at once.
- B. A series of discrete tasks that, when viewed in total, can be used to verify and document each individual constraint from the SRTM.
- C. A set of formal methods that apply to one or more of the programing languages used on the development project.
- D. A methodology to verify each security control in each unit of developed code prior to committing the code.
NEW QUESTION 4
The source workstation image for new accounting PCs has begun blue-screening. A technician notices that the date/time stamp of the image source appears to have changed. The desktop support director has asked the Information Security department to determine if any changes were made to
the source image. Which of the following methods would BEST help with this process? (Select TWO).
- A. Retrieve source system image from backup and run file comparison analysis on the two images.
- B. Parse all images to determine if extra data is hidden using steganography.
- C. Calculate a new hash and compare it with the previously captured image hash.
- D. Ask desktop support if any changes to the images were made.
- E. Check key system files to see if date/time stamp is in the past six month
Explanation: Running a file comparison analysis on the two images will determine whether files have been changed, as well as what files were changed.
Hashing can be used to meet the goals of integrity and non-repudiation. One of its advantages of hashing is its ability to verify that information has remained unchanged. If the hash values are the same, then the images are the same. If the hash values differ, there is a difference between the two
B: Steganography is a type of data exfiltration. Data exfiltration is the unauthorized transfer of data from a computer.
D: According to the scenario, the desktop support director has asked the Information Security department to determine if any changes were made to the source image. Asking the desktop support if any changes to the images were made would therefore be redundant.
E: The question requires the Information Security department to determine if any changes were made to the source image, not when the date/time stamp manipulation occurred.
Gregg, Michael, and Billy Haines, CASP CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner Study Guide, John Wiley & Sons, Indianapolis, 2012, pp. 18, 134
NEW QUESTION 5
A threat advisory alert was just emailed to the IT security staff. The alert references specific types of host operating systems that can allow an unauthorized person to access files on a system remotely. A fix was recently published, but it requires a recent endpoint protection engine to be installed prior to running the fix.
Which of the following MOST likely need to be configured to ensure the system are mitigated accordingly? (Select two.)
- A. Antivirus
- B. HIPS
- C. Application whitelisting
- D. Patch management
- E. Group policy implementation
- F. Firmware updates
NEW QUESTION 6
The administrator is troubleshooting availability issues on an FCoE-based storage array that uses deduplication. The single controller in the storage array has failed, so the administrator wants to move the drives to a storage array from a different manufacturer in order to access the data. Whichof the following issues may potentially occur?
- A. The data may not be in a usable format.
- B. The new storage array is not FCoE based.
- C. The data may need a file system check.
- D. The new storage array also only has a single controlle
Explanation: Fibre Channel over Ethernet (FCoE) is a computer network technology that encapsulates Fibre Channel frames over Ethernet networks. This allows Fibre Channel to use 10 Gigabit Ethernet networks (or higher speeds) while preserving the Fibre Channel protocol.
When moving the disks to another storage array, you need to ensure that the array supports FCoE, not just regular Fiber Channel. Fiber Channel arrays and Fiber Channel over Ethernet arrays use different network connections, hardware and protocols. Fiber Channel arrays use the Fiber Channel protocol over a dedicated Fiber Channel network whereas FCoE arrays use the Fiber Channel
protocol over an Ethernet network. Incorrect Answers:
A: It is unlikely that the data will not be in a usable format. Fiber Channel LUNs appear as local disks on a Windows computer. The computer then creates an NTFS volume on the fiber channel LUN. The storage array does not see the NTFS file system or the data stored on it. FCoE arrays only see the underlying block level storage.
C: The data would not need a file system check. FCoE arrays use block level storage and do not check the file system. Any file system checks would be performed by a Windows computer. Even if this happened, the data would be accessible after the check.
D: The new storage array also having a single controller would not be a problem. Only one controller is required.
NEW QUESTION 7
Customers are receiving emails containing a link to malicious software. These emails are subverting spam filters. The email reads as follows:
Delivered-To: firstname.lastname@example.org Received: by 10.14.120.205
Mon, 1 Nov 2010 11:15:24 -0700 (PDT)
Received: by 10.231.31.193
Mon, 01 Nov 2010 11:15:23 -0700 (PDT)
Received: from 127.0.0.1 for <email@example.com>; Mon, 1 Nov 2010 13:15:14 -0500 (envelope-from <IT@company.com>)
Received: by smtpex.example.com (SMTP READY) with ESMTP (AIO); Mon, 01 Nov 2010 13:15:14 -0500
Received: from 172.18.45.122 by 192.168.2.55; Mon, 1 Nov 2010 13:15:14 -0500
From: Company <IT@Company.com>
To: "firstname.lastname@example.org" <email@example.com> Date: Mon, 1 Nov 2010 13:15:11 -0500
Subject: New Insurance Application Thread-Topic: New Insurance Application
Please download and install software from the site below to maintain full access to your account. www.examplesite.com
Additional information: The authorized mail servers IPs are 192.168.2.10 and 192.168.2.11. The network’s subnet is 192.168.2.0/25.
Which of the following are the MOST appropriate courses of action a security administrator could take to eliminate this risk? (Select TWO).
- A. Identify the origination point for malicious activity on the unauthorized mail server.
- B. Block port 25 on the firewall for all unauthorized mail servers.
- C. Disable open relay functionality.
- D. Shut down the SMTP service on the unauthorized mail server.
- E. Enable STARTTLS on the spam filte
Explanation: In this question, we have an unauthorized mail server using the IP: 192.168.2.55.
Blocking port 25 on the firewall for all unauthorized mail servers is a common and recommended security step. Port 25 should be open on the firewall to the IP addresses of the authorized email servers only (192.168.2.10 and 192.168.2.11). This will prevent unauthorized email servers sending email or receiving and relaying email.
Email servers use SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) to send email to other email servers. Shutting down the SMTP service on the unauthorized mail server is effectively disabling the mail server functionality of the unauthorized server.
A: You shouldn’t worry about identifying the origination point for the malicious activity on the unauthorized mail server. There isn’t much you could do about the remote origination point even if you did identify it. You have an ‘unauthorized’ mail server. That is what you should be dealing with. C: In this question, the email was received by the unauthorized email server (192.168.2.55) ready to be collected by the recipient. The email was not relayed (forwarded) to other email servers. Disabling open relay functionality will not stop the emails. You need to disable all email (SMTP) functionality of the unauthorized server, not just relaying.
E: STARTTLS enables TLS encryption on communications with the spam filter. It will do nothing to prevent the usage of the unauthorized email server.
References: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Simple_Mail_Transfer_ProtHYPERLINK "https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Simple_Mail_Transfer_Protocol"ocol
NEW QUESTION 8
A newly hired security analyst has joined an established SOC team. Not long after going through corporate orientation, a new attack method on web-based applications was publicly revealed. The security analyst immediately brings this new information to the team lead, but the team lead is not concerned about it. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for the team lead’s position?
- A. The organization has accepted the risks associated with web-based threats.
- B. The attack type does not meet the organization’s threat model.
- C. Web-based applications are on isolated network segments.
- D. Corporate policy states that NIPS signatures must be updated every hou
NEW QUESTION 9
A small retail company recently deployed a new point of sale (POS) system to all 67 stores. The core
of the POS is an extranet site, accessible only from retail stores and the corporate office over a splittunnel VPN. An additional split-tunnel VPN provides bi-directional connectivity back to the main
office, which provides voice connectivity for store VoIP phones. Each store offers guest wireless functionality, as well as employee wireless. Only the staff wireless network has access to the POS VPN. Recently, stores are reporting poor response times when accessing the POS application from store computers as well as degraded voice quality when making phone calls. Upon investigation, it is determined that three store PCs are hosting malware, which is generating excessive network traffic. After malware removal, the information security department is asked to review the configuration
and suggest changes to prevent this from happening again. Which of the following denotes the BEST way to mitigate future malware risk?
- A. Deploy new perimeter firewalls at all stores with UTM functionality.
- B. Change antivirus vendors at the store and the corporate office.
- C. Move to a VDI solution that runs offsite from the same data center that hosts the new POS solution.
- D. Deploy a proxy server with content filtering at the corporate office and route all traffic through i
Explanation: A perimeter firewall is located between the local network and the Internet where it can screen network traffic flowing in and out of the organization. A firewall with unified threat management (UTM) functionalities includes anti-malware capabilities.
B: Antivirus applications prevent viruses, worms and Trojans but not other types of malware, such as spyware.
C: A virtual desktop infrastructure (VDI) solution refers to computer virtualization. It uses servers to provide desktop operating systems to a host machines. This reduces on-site support and improves centralized management. It does not mitigate against malware attacks.
D: Content filtering is used to control the types of email messages that flow in and out of an organization, and the types of web pages a user may access. It does not mitigate against malware attacks.
Gregg, Michael, and Billy Haines, CASP CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner Study Guide, John Wiley & Sons, Indianapolis, 2012, pp. 92, 124-127, 135-138
NEW QUESTION 10
A member of the software development team has requested advice from the security team to implement a new secure lab for testing malware. Which of the following is the NEXT step that the security team should take?
- A. Purchase new hardware to keep the malware isolated.
- B. Develop a policy to outline what will be required in the secure lab.
- C. Construct a series of VMs to host the malware environment.
- D. Create a proposal and present it to management for approva
Explanation: Before we can create a solution, we need to motivate why the solution needs to be created and plan
the best implementation with in the company’s business operations. We therefore need to create a proposal that explains the intended implementation and allows for the company to budget for it. Incorrect Answers:
A: Purchasing of equipment cannot take place before approval for the purchases have been obtained. B: A proposal, rather than a policy, of what will be required in the secure lab needs to be created. A policy is a document that outlines person responsible and the standards that must be upheld to meet minimum corporate governance requirements.
C: Virtual machines (VMs) allows for multiple operating systems to run simultaneously on a single host. However, viruses, worms, and malware also have the potential to migrate from one virtual machine to another and to the host machine.
Gregg, Michael, and Billy Haines, CASP CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner Study Guide, John Wiley & Sons, Indianapolis, 2012, pp. 96, 219, 232, 371
NEW QUESTION 11
An administrator has noticed mobile devices from an adjacent company on the corporate wireless network. Malicious activity is being reported from those devices. To add another layer of security in an enterprise environment, an administrator wants to add contextual authentication to allow users to access enterprise resources only while present in corporate buildings. Which of the following technologies would accomplish this?
- A. Port security
- B. Rogue device detection
- C. Bluetooth
- D. GPS
NEW QUESTION 12
A security engineer is attempting to increase the randomness of numbers used in key generation in a system. The goal of the effort is to strengthen the keys against predictive analysis attacks.
Which of the following is the BEST solution?
- A. Use an entropy-as-a-service vendor to leverage larger entropy pools.
- B. Loop multiple pseudo-random number generators in a series to produce larger numbers.
- C. Increase key length by two orders of magnitude to detect brute forcing.
- D. Shift key generation algorithms to ECC algorithm
NEW QUESTION 13
The Chief Information Officer (CIO) has been asked to develop a security dashboard with the relevant metrics. The board of directors will use the dashboard to monitor and track the overall security posture of the organization. The CIO produces a basic report containing both KPI and KRI data in two separate sections for the board to review.
Which of the following BEST meets the needs of the board?
- A. KRI:- Compliance with regulations- Backlog of unresolved security investigations- Severity ofthreats and vulnerabilities reported by sensors- Time to patch critical issues on a monthly basisKPI:- Time to resolve open security items- % of suppliers with approved security control frameworks- EDR coverage across the fileet- Threat landscape rating
- B. KRI:- EDR coverage across the fileet- Backlog of unresolved security investigations- Time to patch critical issues on a monthly basis- Threat landscape ratingKPI:- Time to resolve open security items- Compliance with regulations- % of suppliers with approved security control frameworks- Severity of threats and vulnerabilities reported by sensors
- C. KRI:- EDR coverage across the fileet- % of suppliers with approved security control framework- Backlog of unresolved security investigations- Threat landscape ratingKPI:- Time to resolve open security items- Compliance with regulations- Time to patch critical issues on a monthly basis- Severity of threats and vulnerabilities reported by sensors
- D. KPI:- Compliance with regulations- % of suppliers with approved security control frameworks- Severity of threats and vulnerabilities reported by sensors- Threat landscape ratingKRI:- Time to resolve open security items- Backlog of unresolved security investigations- EDR coverage across the fileet- Time to patch critical issues on a monthly basis
NEW QUESTION 14
A government agency considers confidentiality to be of utmost importance and availability issues to be of least importance. Knowing this, which of the following correctly orders various vulnerabilities in the order of MOST important to LEAST important?
- A. Insecure direct object references, CSRF, Smurf
- B. Privilege escalation, Application DoS, Buffer overflow
- C. SQL injection, Resource exhaustion, Privilege escalation
- D. CSRF, Fault injection, Memory leaks
Explanation: Insecure direct object references are used to access dat
A. CSRF attacks the functions of a web site which could access dat
A. A Smurf attack is used to take down a system.
A direct object reference is likely to occur when a developer exposes a reference to an internal implementation object, such as a file, directory, or database key without any validation mechanism which will allow attackers to manipulate these references to access unauthorized data.
Cross-Site Request Forgery (CSRF) is a type of attack that occurs when a malicious Web site, email, blog, instant message, or program causes a user’s Web browser to perform an unwanted action on a trusted site for which the user is currently authenticated. The impact of a successful cross-site request forgery attack is limited to the capabilities exposed by the vulnerable application. For example, this attack could result in a transfer of funds, changing a password, or purchasing an item in the user's context. In effect, CSRF attacks are used by an attacker to make a target system perform a function (funds Transfer, form submission etc.) via the target's browser without knowledge of the target user, at least until the unauthorized function has been committed.
A smurf attack is a type of network security breach in which a network connected to the Internet is swamped with replies to ICMP echo (PING) requests. A smurf attacker sends PING requests to an Internet broadcast address. These are special addresses that broadcast all received messages to the hosts connected to the subnet. Each broadcast address can support up to 255 hosts, so a single PING request can be multiplied 255 times. The return address of the request itself is spoofed to be the address of the attacker's victim. All the hosts receiving the PING request reply to this victim's address instead of the real sender's address. A single attacker sending hundreds or thousands of these PING messages per second can fill the victim's T-1 (or even T-3) line with ping replies, bring the entire Internet service to its knees.
Smurfing falls under the general category of Denial of Service attacks -- security attacks that don't try to steal information, but instead attempt to disable a computer or network.
B: Application DoS is an attack designed to affect the availability of an application. Buffer overflow is used to obtain information. Therefore, the order of importance in this answer is incorrect.
C: Resource exhaustion is an attack designed to affect the availability of a system. Privilege escalation is used to obtain information. Therefore, the order of importance in this answer is incorrect.
D: The options in the other answers (Insecure direct object references, privilege escalation, SQL injection) are more of a threat to data confidentiality than the options in this answer. References:
/insecure_direct_object_reference.htm https://www.owasp.org/index.php/Cross-Site_HYPERLINK "https://www.owasp.org/index.php/Cross-
Site_Request_Forgery_(CSRF)_Prevention_Cheat_Sheet"Request_Forgery_(CSRF)_HYPERLINK "https://www.owasp.org/index.php/Cross- Site_Request_Forgery_(CSRF)_Prevention_Cheat_Sheet"Prevention_Cheat_Sheet http://www.webopedia.com/TERM/S/smurf.html
NEW QUESTION 15
A penetration tester has been contracted to conduct a physical assessment of a site. Which of the following is the MOST plausible method of social engineering to be conducted during this engagement?
- A. Randomly calling customer employees and posing as a help desk technician requiring user password to resolve issues
- B. Posing as a copier service technician and indicating the equipment had “phoned home” to alert the technician for a service call
- C. Simulating an illness while at a client location for a sales call and then recovering once listening devices are installed
- D. Obtaining fake government credentials and impersonating law enforcement to gain access to a company facility
NEW QUESTION 16
The finance department for an online shopping website has discovered that a number of customers were able to purchase goods and services without any payments. Further analysis conducted by the security investigations team indicated that the website allowed customers to update a payment amount for shipping. A specially crafted value could be entered and cause a roll over, resulting in the shipping cost being subtracted from the balance and in some instances resulted in a negative balance. As a result, the system processed the negative balance as zero dollars. Which of the following BEST describes the application issue?
- A. Race condition
- B. Click-jacking
- C. Integer overflow
- D. Use after free
- E. SQL injection
Explanation: Integer overflow errors can occur when a program fails to account for the fact that an arithmetic operation can result in a quantity either greater than a data type's maximum value or less than its minimum value.
A: Race conditions are a form of arrack that normally targets timing, and sometimes called asynchronous attacks. The objective is to explogt the delay between the time of check (TOC) and the time of use (TOU).
B: Click-jacking is when attackers deceive Web users into disclosing confidential information or taking control of their computer while clicking on seemingly harmless web pages.
D: Use after free errors happen when a program carries on making use of a pointer after it has been freed.
E: A SQL injection attack occurs when the attacker makes use of a series of malicious SQL queries to directly influence the SQL database.
Gregg, Michael, and Billy Haines, CASP CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner Study Guide, John Wiley & Sons, Indianapolis, 2012, pp. 151, 153, 163
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