CAS-003 | Free CAS-003 Dumps 2021

Exam Code: CAS-003 (CAS-003 Free Practice Questions), Exam Name: CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP), Certification Provider: CompTIA Certifitcation, Free Today! Guaranteed Training- Pass CAS-003 Exam.

Free demo questions for CompTIA CAS-003 Exam Dumps Below:

Ann, a terminated employee, left personal photos on a company-issued laptop and no longer has access to them. Ann emails her previous manager and asks to get her personal photos back. Which of the following BEST describes how the manager should respond?

  • A. Determine if the data still exists by inspecting to ascertain if the laptop has already been wiped and if the storage team has recent backups.
  • B. Inform Ann that the laptop was for company data only and she should not have stored personal photos on a company asset.
  • C. Report the email because it may have been a spoofed request coming from an attacker who is trying to exfiltrate data from the company laptop.
  • D. Consult with the legal and/or human resources department and check company policies around employment and termination procedures.

Answer: D

A large enterprise with thousands of users is experiencing a relatively high frequency of malicious activity from the insider threats. Much of the activity appears to involve internal reconnaissance that results in targeted attacks against privileged users and network file shares. Given this scenario, which of the following would MOST likely prevent or deter these attacks? (Choose two.)

  • A. Conduct role-based training for privileged users that highlights common threats against them and covers best practices to thwart attacks
  • B. Increase the frequency at which host operating systems are scanned for vulnerabilities, and decrease the amount of time permitted between vulnerability identification and the application of corresponding patches
  • C. Enforce command shell restrictions via group policies for all workstations by default to limit which native operating system tools are available for use
  • D. Modify the existing rules of behavior to include an explicit statement prohibiting users from enumerating user and file directories using available tools and/or accessing visible resources that do not directly pertain to their job functions
  • E. For all workstations, implement full-disk encryption and configure UEFI instances to require complex passwords for authentication
  • F. Implement application blacklisting enforced by the operating systems of all machines in the enterprise

Answer: CD

A company has entered into a business agreement with a business partner for managed human resources services. The Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) has been asked to provide documentation that is required to set up a business-to-business VPN between the two organizations. Which of the following is required in this scenario?

  • A. ISA
  • B. BIA
  • C. SLA
  • D. RA

Answer: C

The following has been discovered in an internally developed application: Error - Memory allocated but not freed:
char *myBuffer = malloc(BUFFER_SIZE); if (myBuffer != NULL) {
*myBuffer = STRING_WELCOME_MESSAGE; printf(“Welcome to: %sn”, myBuffer);
Which of the following security assessment methods are likely to reveal this security weakness? (Select TWO).

  • A. Static code analysis
  • B. Memory dumping
  • C. Manual code review
  • D. Application sandboxing
  • E. Penetration testing
  • F. Black box testing

Answer: AC

Explanation: A Code review refers to the examination of an application (the new network based software product in this case) that is designed to identify and assess threats to the organization.
Application code review – whether manual or static will reveal the type of security weakness as shown in the exhibit.
Incorrect Answers:
B: Memory dumping is a penetration test. Applications work by storing information such as sensitive data, passwords, user names and encryption keys in the memory. Conducting memory dumping will allow you to analyze the memory content. You already have the memory content that you require in this case.
D: Application Sandboxing is aimed at detecting malware code by running it in a computer-based system to analyze it for behavior and traits that indicates malware. Application sandboxing refers to the process of writing files to a temporary storage are (the so-called sandbox) so that you limit the ability of possible malicious code to execute on your computer.
E: Penetration testing is designed to simulate an attack. This is not what is required in this case. F: Black box testing is used when the security team is provided with no knowledge of the system, network, or application. In this case the code of the application is already available.
Gregg, Michael, and Billy Haines, CASP CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner Study Guide, John Wiley & Sons, Indianapolis, 2012, pp. 168-169, 174

The helpdesk manager wants to find a solution that will enable the helpdesk staff to better serve company employees who call with computer-related problems. The helpdesk staff is currently unable to perform effective troubleshooting and relies on callers to describe their technology problems. Given that the helpdesk staff is located within the company headquarters and 90% of the callers are telecommuters, which of the following tools should the helpdesk manager use to make the staff more effective at troubleshooting while at the same time reducing company costs? (Select TWO).

  • A. Web cameras
  • B. Email
  • C. Instant messaging
  • D. BYOD
  • E. Desktop sharing
  • F. Presence

Answer: CE

Explanation: C: Instant messaging (IM) allows two-way communication in near real time, allowing users to collaborate, hold informal chat meetings, and share files and information. Some IM platforms have added encryption, central logging, and user access controls. This can be used to replace calls between the end-user and the helpdesk.
E: Desktop sharing allows a remote user access to another user’s desktop and has the ability to function as a remote system administration tool. This can allow the helpdesk to determine the cause of the problem on the end-users desktop.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Web cameras can be used for videoconferencing. This can be used to replace calls between the end-user and the helpdesk but would require the presence of web cameras and sufficient bandwidth. B: Email can be used to replace calls between the end-user and the helpdesk but email communication is not in real-time.
D: Bring your own device (BYOD) is a relatively new phenomena in which company employees are allowed to connect their personal devices, such as smart phones and tablets to the corporate network and use those devices for work purposes.
F: Presence is an Apple software product that is similar to Windows Remote Desktop. It gives users access to their Mac's files wherever they are. It also allows users to share fi les and data between a Mac, iPhone, and iPad.
Gregg, Michael, and Billy Haines, CASP CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner Study Guide, John Wiley & Sons, Indianapolis, 2012, pp. 347, 348, 351

A security engineer must establish a method to assess compliance with company security policies as they apply to the unique configuration of individual endpoints, as well as to the shared configuration policies of common devices.
CAS-003 dumps exhibit
Which of the following tools is the security engineer using to produce the above output?

  • A. Vulnerability scanner
  • B. SIEM
  • C. Port scanner
  • D. SCAP scanner

Answer: B

In the past, the risk committee at Company A has shown an aversion to even minimal amounts of risk acceptance. A security engineer is preparing recommendations regarding the risk of a proposed introducing legacy ICS equipment. The project will introduce a minor vulnerability into the enterprise. This vulnerability does not significantly expose the enterprise to risk and would be expensive against.
Which of the following strategies should the engineer recommended be approved FIRST?

  • A. Avoid
  • B. Mitigate
  • C. Transfer
  • D. Accept

Answer: B

During a recent audit of servers, a company discovered that a network administrator, who required
remote access, had deployed an unauthorized remote access application that communicated over common ports already allowed through the firewall. A network scan showed that this remote access application had already been installed on one third of the servers in the company. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate action that the company should take to provide a more appropriate solution?

  • A. Implement an IPS to block the application on the network
  • B. Implement the remote application out to the rest of the servers
  • C. Implement SSL VPN with SAML standards for federation
  • D. Implement an ACL on the firewall with NAT for remote access

Answer: C

Explanation: A Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) virtual private network (VPN) would provide the network administrator who requires remote access a secure and reliable method of accessing the system over the Internet. Security Assertion Markup Language (SAML) standards for federation will provide cross-web service authentication and authorization.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Blocking the application would prevent the network administrator who requires remote access from accessing the system. While this will address the presence of the unauthorized remote access application, it will not address the network administrator’s need for remote access.
B: Installing the unauthorized remote access application on the rest of the servers would not be an “appropriate” solution. An appropriate solution would provide a secure form of remote access to the network administrator who requires remote access.
D: An access control list (ACL) is used for packer filtering and for selecting types of traffic to be analyzed, forwarded, or blocked by the firewall or device. The ACL may block traffic based on source and destination address, interface, port, protocol, thresholds and various other criteri
A. However,
network address translation (NAT) is not used for remote access. It is used to map private IPv4 addresses to a single public IPv4 address, allowing multiple internal hosts with private IPv4 addresses to access the internet via the public IPv4 address.
BOOK pp. 28, 40-41, 110-112, 138. 335-336 htHYPERLINK
""tps:// address_translation

A company has decided to lower costs by conducting an internal assessment on specific devices and various internal and external subnets. The assessment will be done during regular office hours, but it must not affect any production servers. Which of the following would MOST likely be used to complete the assessment? (Select two.)

  • A. Agent-based vulnerability scan
  • B. Black-box penetration testing
  • C. Configuration review
  • D. Social engineering
  • E. Malware sandboxing
  • F. Tabletop exercise

Answer: AC

An engineer is evaluating the control profile to assign to a system containing PII, financial, and proprietary data.
CAS-003 dumps exhibit
Based on the data classification table above, which of the following BEST describes the overall classification?

  • A. High confidentiality, high availability
  • B. High confidentiality, medium availability
  • C. Low availability, low confidentiality
  • D. High integrity, low availability

Answer: B

A mature organization with legacy information systems has incorporated numerous new processes and dependencies to manage security as its networks and infrastructure are modernized. The Chief Information Office has become increasingly frustrated with frequent releases, stating that the organization needs everything to work completely, and the vendor should already have those desires built into the software product. The vendor has been in constant communication with personnel and groups within the organization to understand its business process and capture new software requirements from users. Which of the following methods of software development is this organization’s configuration management process using?

  • A. Agile
  • B. SDL
  • C. Waterfall
  • D. Joint application development

Answer: A

Explanation: In agile software development, teams of programmers and business experts work closely together, using an iterative approach.
Incorrect Answers:
B: The Microsoft developed security development life cycle (SDL) is designed to minimize the security-related design and coding bugs in software. An organization that implements SDL has a central security team that performs security functions.
C: The waterfall model is a sequential software development processes, in which progress is seen as flowing steadily downwards through the phases of conception, initiation, analysis, design, construction, testing, production/implementation and maintenance.
D: The vendor is still responsible for developing the solution, Therefore this is not an example of joint application development.
BOOK pp. 371, 374

To meet a SLA, which of the following document should be drafted, defining the company’s internal interdependent unit responsibilities and delivery timelines.

  • A. BPA
  • B. OLA
  • C. MSA
  • D. MOU

Answer: B

Explanation: OLA is an agreement between the internal support groups of an institution that supports SLA. According to the Operational Level Agreement, each internal support group has certain responsibilities to the other group. The OLA clearly depicts the performance and relationship of the internal service groups. The main objective of OLA is to ensure that all the support groups provide the intended ServiceLevelAgreement.

A vulnerability scanner report shows that a client-server host monitoring solution operating in the credit card corporate environment is managing SSL sessions with a weak algorithm which does not meet corporate policy. Which of the following are true statements? (Select TWO).

  • A. The X509 V3 certificate was issued by a non trusted public CA.
  • B. The client-server handshake could not negotiate strong ciphers.
  • C. The client-server handshake is configured with a wrong priority.
  • D. The client-server handshake is based on TLS authentication.
  • E. The X509 V3 certificate is expired.
  • F. The client-server implements client-server mutual authentication with different certificate

Answer: BC

Explanation: The client-server handshake could not negotiate strong ciphers. This means that the system is not configured to support the strong ciphers provided by later versions of the SSL protocol. For example, if the system is configured to support only SSL version 1.1, then only a weak cipher will be supported. The client-server handshake is configured with a wrong priority. The client sends a list of SSL versions it supports and priority should be given to the highest version it supports. For example, if the client supports SSL versions 1.1, 2 and 3, then the server should use version 3. If the priority is not configured correctly (if it uses the lowest version) then version 1.1 with its weak algorithm will be used.
Incorrect Answers:
A: If the X509 V3 certificate was issued by a non-trusted public CA, then the client would receive an error saying the certificate is not trusted. However, an X509 V3 certificate would not cause a weak algorithm.
D: TLS provides the strongest algorithm; even stronger than SSL version 3.
E: If the X509 V3 certificate had expired, then the client would receive an error saying the certificate is not trusted due to being expired. However, an X509 V3 certificate would not cause a weak algorithm.
F: SSL does not mutual authentication with different certificates. References: "" nderstanding-ssl-hHYPERLINK "" andshake-protocol

A security analyst has requested network engineers integrate sFlow into the SOC’s overall monitoring picture. For this to be a useful addition to the monitoring capabilities, which of the following must be considered by the engineering team?

  • A. Effective deployment of network taps
  • B. Overall bandwidth available at Internet PoP
  • C. Optimal placement of log aggregators
  • D. Availability of application layer visualizers

Answer: D

A security firm is writing a response to an RFP from a customer that is building a new network based software product. The firm’s expertise is in penetration testing corporate networks. The RFP explicitly calls for all possible behaviors of the product to be tested, however, it does not specify any particular method to achieve this goal. Which of the following should be used to ensure the security and functionality of the product? (Select TWO).

  • A. Code review
  • B. Penetration testing
  • C. Grey box testing
  • D. Code signing
  • E. White box testing

Answer: AE

Explanation: A Code review refers to the examination of an application (the new network based software product in this case) that is designed to identify and assess threats to the organization.
White box testing assumes that the penetration test team has full knowledge of the network and the infrastructure per se thus rendering the testing to follow a more structured approach.
Incorrect Answers:
B: Penetration testing is a broad term to refer to all the different types of tests such as back box-, white box and gray box testing.
C: Grey Box testing is similar to white box testing, but not as insightful.
D: Code signing is the term used to refer to the process of digitally signing executables and scripts to confirm the author. This is not applicable in this case.
Gregg, Michael, and Billy Haines, CASP CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner Study Guide, John Wiley & Sons, Indianapolis, 2012, pp. 18, 168-169

An internal staff member logs into an ERP platform and clicks on a record. The browser URL changes to:
Which of the following is the MOST likely vulnerability in this ERP platform?

  • A. Brute forcing of account credentials
  • B. Plan-text credentials transmitted over the Internet
  • C. Insecure direct object reference
  • D. SQL injection of ERP back end

Answer: C

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