GSNA | The Down To Date Guide To GSNA Dumps Questions

NEW QUESTION 1

Which of the following statements are true about WPA?

• A. WPA-PSK requires a user to enter an 8-character to 63-character passphrase into a wireless client.
• B. Shared-key WPA is vulnerable to password cracking attacks if a weak passphrase is used.
• C. WPA-PSK converts the passphrase into a 256-bit key.
• D. WPA provides better security than WEP.

Answer: ABCD

Explanation:

WPA stands for Wi-Fi Protected Access. It is a wireless security standard. It provides better security than WEP (Wired Equivalent Protection). Windows Vista supports both WPA-PSK and WPA-EAP. Each of these is described as follows: WPA-PSK: PSK stands for Preshared key. This standard is meant for home environment. WPA-PSK requires a user to enter an 8- character to 63-character passphrase into a wireless client. The WPA converts the passphrase into a 256-bit key. WPA-EAP: EAP stands for Extensible Authentication Protocol. This standard relies on a back-end server that runs Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service for user authentication. Note: Windows Vista supports a user to use a smart card to connect to a WPA-EAP protected network. Shared- key WPA is vulnerable to password cracking attacks if a weak passphrase is used. To protect against a brute force attack, a truly random passphrase of 13 characters (selected from the set of 95 permitted characters) is probably sufficient.

NEW QUESTION 2

Which of the following are the goals of risk management? (Choose three)

• A. Identifying the risk
• B. Assessing the impact of potential threats
• C. Finding an economic balance between the impact of the risk and the cost of the countermeasure
• D. Identifying the accused

Answer: ABC

Explanation:

There are three goals of risk management as follows: Identifying the risk Assessing the impact of potential threats Finding an economic balance between the impact of the risk and the cost of the countermeasure Answer D is incorrect. Identifying the accused does not come under the scope of risk management.

NEW QUESTION 3

Which of the following statements are true about SSIDs?

• A. Configuring the same SSID as that of the other Wireless Access Points (WAPs) of other networks will create a conflict.
• B. SSIDs are case insensitive text strings and have a maximum length of 64 characters.
• C. All wireless devices on a wireless network must have the same SSID in order to communicate with each other.
• D. SSID is used to identify a wireless network.

Answer: ACD

Explanation:

SSID stands for Service Set Identifier. It is used to identify a wireless network. SSIDs are case sensitive text strings and have a maximum length of 32 characters. All wireless devices on a wireless network must have the same SSID in order to communicate with each other. The SSID on computers and the devices in WLAN can be set manually and automatically. Configuring the same SSID as that of the other Wireless Access Points (WAPs) of other networks will create a conflict. A network administrator often uses a public SSID that is set on the access point. The access point broadcasts SSID to all wireless devices within its range. Some newer wireless access points have the ability to disable the automatic SSID broadcast feature in order to improve network security.

NEW QUESTION 4

You work as the Network Administrator for Perfect Solutions Inc. The company has a Linux-based network. You are a root user on the Red Hat operating system. You want to keep an eye on the system log file /var/adm/messages. Which of the following commands should you use to read the file in real time?

• A. tail -n 3 /var/adm/messages
• B. tail -f /var/adm/messages
• C. cat /var/adm/messages
• D. tail /var/adm/messages

Answer: B

Explanation:

Using the -f option causes tail to continue to display the file in real time, showing added lines to the end of the file as they occur.

NEW QUESTION 5

You work as a Java Programmer for JavaSkills Inc. You are working with the Linux operating system. Nowadays, when you start your computer, you notice that your OS is taking more time to boot than usual. You discuss this with your Network Administrator. He suggests that you mail him your Linux bootup report. Which of the following commands will you use to create the Linux bootup report?

• A. touch bootup_report.txt
• B. dmesg > bootup_report.txt
• C. dmesg | wc
• D. man touch

Answer: B

Explanation:

According to the scenario, you can use dmesg > bootup_report.txt to create the bootup file. With this command, the bootup messages will be displayed and will be redirected towards bootup_report.txt using the > command.

NEW QUESTION 6

Which of the following is a type of web site monitoring that is done using web browser emulation or scripted real web browsers?

• A. Route analytics
• B. Passive monitoring
• C. Network tomography
• D. Synthetic monitoring

Answer: D

Explanation:

Synthetic monitoring is an active Web site monitoring that is done using Web browser emulation or scripted real Web browsers. Behavioral scripts (or paths) are created to simulate an action or path that a customer or end-user would take on a site. Those paths are then continuously monitored at specified intervals for availability and response time measures. Synthetic monitoring is valuable because it enables a Webmaster to identify problems and determine if his Web site or Web application is slow or experiencing downtime before that problem affects actual end-users or customers. Answer B is incorrect. Passive monitoring is a technique used to analyze network traffic by capturing traffic from a network by generating a copy of that traffic. It is done with the help of a span port, mirror port, or network tap. Once the data (a stream of frames or packets) has been extracted, it can be used in many ways. Passive monitoring can be very helpful in troubleshooting performance problems once they have occurred. Passive monitoring relies on actual inbound Web traffic to take measurements, so problems can only be discovered after they have occurred. Answer A is incorrect. Route analytics is an emerging network monitoring technology specifically developed to analyze the routing protocols and structures in meshed IP networks. Their main mode of operation is to passively listen to the Layer 3 routing protocol exchanges between routers for the purposes of network discovery, mapping, real-time monitoring, and routing diagnostics. Answer C is incorrect. Network tomography is an important area of network measurement that deals with monitoring the health of various links in a network using end-to-end probes sent by agents located at vantage points in the network/Internet.

NEW QUESTION 7

You are concerned about attackers simply passing by your office, discovering your wireless network, and getting into your network via the wireless connection. Which of the following are NOT steps in securing your wireless connection? (Choose two)

• A. Hardening the server OS
• B. Using either WEP or WPA encryption
• C. MAC filtering on the router
• D. Strong password policies on workstations.
• E. Not broadcasting SSID

Answer: AD

Explanation:

Both hardening the server OS and using strong password policies on workstations are good ideas, but neither has anything to do with securing your wireless connection. Answer B is incorrect. Using WEP or WPA is one of the most basic security steps in securing your wireless.

NEW QUESTION 8

You work as a Network Administrator for XYZ CORP. The company has a Linux-based network. You need to configure a firewall for the company. The firewall should be able to keep track of the state of network connections traveling across the network. Which of the following types of firewalls will you configure to accomplish the task?

• A. A network-based application layer firewall
• B. Host-based application firewall
• C. An application firewall
• D. Stateful firewall

Answer: D

Explanation:
A stateful firewall is a firewall that keeps track of the state of network connections (such as TCP streams, UDP communication) traveling across it. The firewall is programmed to distinguish legitimate packets for different types of connections. Only packets matching a known connection state will be allowed by the firewall; others will be rejected. Answer B is incorrect. A host-based application firewall can monitor any application input, output, and/or system service calls made from, to, or by an application. This is done by examining information passed through system calls instead of, or in addition to, a network stack. A host-based application firewall can only provide protection to the applications running on the same host. An example of a host-based application firewall that controls system service calls by an application is AppArmor or the Mac OS X application firewall. Host-based application firewalls may also provide network-based application firewalling. Answer A is incorrect. A network-based application layer firewall, also known as a proxy-based or reverse-proxy firewall, is a computer networking firewall that operates at the application layer of a protocol stack. Application firewalls specific to a particular kind of network traffic may be titled with the service name, such as a Web application firewall. They may be implemented through software running on a host or a stand-alone piece of network hardware. Often, it is a host using various forms of proxy servers to proxy traffic before passing it on to the client or server. Because it acts on the application layer, it may inspect the contents of the traffic, blocking specified content, such as certain websites, viruses, and attempts to exploit known logical flaws in client software. Answer C is incorrect. An application firewall is a form of firewall that controls input, output, and/or access from, to, or by an application or service. It operates by monitoring and potentially blocking the input, output, or system service calls that do not meet the configured policy of the firewall. The application firewall is typically built to monitor one or more specific applications or services (such as a web or database service), unlike a stateful network firewall, which can provide some access controls for nearly any kind of network traffic. There are two primary categories of application firewalls: Network-based application firewalls Host-based application firewalls

NEW QUESTION 9

Victor works as a professional Ethical Hacker for SecureEnet Inc. He wants to scan the wireless network of the company. He uses a tool that is a free open-source utility for
network exploration. The tool uses raw IP packets to determine the following: What ports are open on our network systems. What hosts are available on the network. Identify unauthorized wireless access points. What services (application name and version) those hosts are offering. What operating systems (and OS versions) they are running. What type of packet filters/firewalls are in use. Which of the following tools is Victor using?

• A. Nessus
• B. Sniffer
• C. Nmap
• D. Kismet

Answer: C

Explanation:

Nmap is a free open-source utility for network exploration and security auditing. It is used to discover computers and services on a computer network, thus creating a "map" of the network. Just like many simple port scanners, Nmap is capable of discovering passive services. In addition, Nmap may be able to determine various details about the remote computers. These include operating system, device type, uptime, software product used to run a service, exact version number of that product, presence of some firewall techniques and, on a local area network, even vendor of the remote network card. Nmap runs on Linux, Microsoft Windows etc. Answer D is incorrect. Kismet is a Linux-based 802.11 wireless network sniffer and intrusion detection system. It can work with any wireless card that supports raw monitoring (rfmon) mode. Kismet can sniff 802.11b, 802.11a, 802.11g, and 802.11n traffic. Kismet can be used for the following tasks: To identify networks by passively collecting packets To detect standard named networks To detect masked networks To collect the presence of non-beaconing networks via data traffic Answer A is incorrect. Nessus is proprietary comprehensive vulnerability scanning software. It is free of charge for personal use in a non-enterprise environment. Its goal is to detect potential vulnerabilities on the tested systems. It is capable of checking various types of vulnerabilities, some of which are as follows: Vulnerabilities that allow a remote cracker to control or access sensitive data on a system. Misconfiguration (e.g. open mail relay, missing patches, etc). Default passwords, a few common passwords, and blank/absent passwords on some system accounts. Nessus can also call Hydra (an external tool) to launch a dictionary attack. Denials of service against the TCP/IP stack by using mangled packets. Answer B is incorrect. A sniffer is a software tool that is used to capture any network traffic. Since a sniffer changes the NIC of the LAN card into promiscuous mode, the NIC begins to record incoming and outgoing data traffic across the network. A sniffer attack is a passive attack because the attacker does not directly connect with the target host. This attack is most often used to grab logins and passwords from network traffic. Tools such as Ethereal, Snort, Windump, EtherPeek, Dsniff are some good examples of sniffers. These tools provide many facilities to users such as graphical user interface, traffic statistics graph, multiple sessions tracking, etc.

NEW QUESTION 10

Which of the following statements about Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) are true? (Choose two)

• A. It provides connectivity between Web browser and Web server.
• B. It provides mail transfer service.
• C. It provides communication privacy, authentication, and message integrity.
• D. It uses a combination of public key and symmetric encryption for security of data.

Answer: CD

Explanation:

Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) is a protocol used to transmit private documents via the Internet. SSL uses a combination of public key and symmetric encryption to provide communication privacy, authentication, and message integrity. Using the SSL protocol, clients and servers can communicate in a way that prevents eavesdropping and tampering of data on the Internet. Many Web sites use the SSL protocol to obtain confidential user information, such as credit card numbers. By convention, URLs that require an SSL connection start with https: instead of http:. By default, SSL uses port 443 for secured communication. For a SSL connection between a Web browser and Web server, you must enter https, for example, "https://www.vzen.com", instead of http as the protocol type in the URL. This will instruct the Web browser to use a different port for communication. SSL uses TCP port 443 for communication.

NEW QUESTION 11

Which of the following are the countermeasures against WEP cracking?

• A. Using the longest key supported by hardware.
• B. Changing keys often.
• C. Using a non-obvious key.
• D. Using a 16 bit SSID.

Answer: ABC

Explanation:

A user can use some countermeasures to prevent WEP cracking. Although WEP is least secure, it should not be used. However, a user can use the following methods to mitigate WEP cracking: Use a non-obvious key. Use the longest key supported by hardware. Change keys often. Use WEP in combination with other security features, such as rapid WEP key rotation and dynamic keying using 802.1x. Consider WEP a deterrent, not a guarantee. Answer D is incorrect. SSID stands for Service Set Identifier. It is used to identify a wireless network. SSIDs are case sensitive text strings and have a maximum length of 32 characters. All wireless devices on a wireless network must have the same SSID in order to communicate with each other. The SSID on computers and the devices in WLAN can be set manually and automatically. Configuring the same SSID as that of the other Wireless Access Points (WAPs) of other networks will create a conflict. A network administrator often uses a public SSID that is set on the access point. The access point broadcasts SSID to all wireless devices within its range. Some newer wireless access points have the ability to disable the automatic SSID broadcast feature in order to improve network security.

NEW QUESTION 12

Which of the following types of authentication tokens forms a logical connection to the client computer but does not require a physical connection?

• A. Virtual token
• B. Connected token
• C. Disconnected token
• D. Contactless token

Answer: D

Explanation:

Contactless tokens are the third main type of physical tokens. Unlike connected tokens, they form a logical connection to the client computer but do not require a physical connection. The absence of the need for physical contact makes them more convenient than both connected and disconnected tokens. As a result, contactless tokens are a popular choice for keyless entry systems and electronic payment solutions such as Mobil Speedpass, which uses RFID to transmit authentication information from a keychain token. However, there have been various security concerns raised about RFID tokens after researchers at Johns Hopkins University and RSA Laboratories discovered that RFID tags could be easily cracked and cloned. Another downside is that contactless tokens have relatively short battery lives, usually only 3-5 years, which is low compared to USB tokens which may last up to 10 years. However, some tokens do allow the batteries to be changed, thus reducing costs. Answer A is incorrect. Virtual tokens are a new concept in multi-factor authentication first introduced in 2005 by security company Sestus. Virtual tokens work by sharing the token generation process between the Internet website and the user's computer and have the advantage of not requiring the distribution of additional hardware or software. In addition, since the user's device is communicating directly with the authenticating website, the solution is resistant to man-in-the-middle attacks and similar forms of online fraud. Answer B is incorrect. Connected tokens are tokens that must be physically connected to the client computer. Tokens in this category will automatically transmit the authentication information to the client computer once a physical connection is made, eliminating the need for the user to manually enter the authentication information. However, in order to use a connected token, the appropriate input device must be installed. The most common types of physical tokens are smart cards and USB tokens, which require a smart card reader and a USB port, respectively. Answer C is incorrect. Disconnected tokens have neither a physical nor logical connection to the client computer. They typically do not require a special input device, and instead use a built-in screen to display the generated authentication data, which the user enters manually via a keyboard or keypad.
Disconnected tokens are the most common type of security token used (usually in combination with a password) in two-factor authentication for online identification.

NEW QUESTION 13

Which of the following types of servers are dedicated to provide resources to hosts on the network? (Choose three)

• A. Web servers
• B. Monitoring servers
• C. Mail servers
• D. Default gateway servers
• E. Print servers

Answer: ACE

Explanation:

Following types of servers are dedicated to provide resources to other hosts on the network: Mail servers Print servers Web servers Default gateway does not provide resources to hosts on the network. Monitoring server is not a type of server.

NEW QUESTION 14

John works as a professional Ethical Hacker. He has been assigned the project of testing the security of www.we-are-secure.com. He wants to use Kismet as a wireless sniffer to sniff the We-are-secure network. Which of the following IEEE-based traffic can be sniffed with Kismet?

• A. 802.11g
• B. 802.11n
• C. 802.11b
• D. 802.11a

Answer: ABCD

Explanation:

Kismet can sniff IEEE 802.11a, 802.11b, 802.11g, and 802.11n-based wireless network traffic.

NEW QUESTION 15

In which of the following scanning techniques does a scanner connect to an FTP server and request that server to start data transfer to the third system?

• A. Xmas Tree scanning
• B. TCP FIN scanning
• C. TCP SYN scanning
• D. Bounce attack scanning

Answer: D

Explanation:

In the TCP FTP proxy (bounce attack) scanning, a scanner connects to an FTP server and requests that server to start data transfer to the third system. Now, the scanner uses the PORT FTP command to declare whether or not the data transfer process is listening to the target system at the certain port number. Then the scanner uses LIST FTP command to list the current directory. This result is sent over the server. If the data transfer is successful, it is clear that the port is open. If the port is closed, the attacker receives the connection refused ICMP error message. Answer A is incorrect. Xmas Tree scanning is just the opposite of null scanning. In Xmas Tree scanning, all packets are turned on. If the target port is open, the service running on the target port discards the packets without any reply. According to RFC 793, if the port is closed, the remote system replies with the RST packet. Active monitoring of all incoming packets can help system network administrators detect an Xmas Tree scan. Answer B is incorrect. TCP FIN scanning is a type of stealth scanning, through which the attacker sends a FIN packet to the target port. If the port is closed, the victim assumes that this packet was sent mistakenly by the attacker and sends the RST packet to the attacker. If the port is open, the FIN packet will be ignored and the port will drop that packet. TCP FIN scanning is useful only for identifying ports of non Windows operating system because Windows operating systems send only RST packets irrespective of whether the port is open or closed. Answer C is incorrect. TCP SYN scanning is also known as half-open scanning because in this a full TCP connection is never opened. The steps of TCP SYN scanning are as follows: 1.The attacker sends SYN packet to the target port. 2.If the port is open, the attacker receives SYN/ACK message. 3.Now the attacker breaks the connection by sending an RST packet. 4.If the RST packet is received, it indicates that the port is closed. This type of scanning is hard to trace because the attacker never establishes a full 3-way handshake connection and most sites do not create a log of incomplete TCP connections.

NEW QUESTION 16

John used to work as a Network Administrator for We-are-secure Inc. Now he has resigned from the company for personal reasons. He wants to send out some secret information of the company. To do so, he takes an image file and simply uses a tool image hide and embeds the secret file within an image file of the famous actress, Jennifer Lopez, and sends it to his Yahoo mail id. Since he is using the image file to send the data, the mail server of his company is unable to filter this mail. Which of the following techniques is he performing to accomplish his task?

• A. Web ripping
• B. Steganography
• C. Email spoofing
• D. Social engineering

Answer: B

Explanation:

According to the scenario, John is performing the Steganography technique for sending malicious data. Steganography is an art and science of hiding information by embedding harmful messages within other seemingly harmless messages. It works by replacing bits of unused data, such as graphics, sound, text, and HTML, with bits of invisible information in regular computer files. This hidden information can be in the form of plain text, cipher text, or even in the form of images. Answer A is incorrect. Web ripping is
a technique in which the attacker copies the whole structure of a Web site to the local disk and obtains all files of the Web site. Web ripping helps an attacker to trace the loopholes of the Web site. Answer D is incorrect. Social engineering is the art of convincing people and making them disclose useful information such as account names and passwords. This information is further exploited by hackers to gain access to a user's computer or network. This method involves mental ability of the people to trick someone rather than their technical skills. A user should always distrust people who ask him for his account name or password, computer name, IP address, employee ID, or other information that can be misused. Answer C is incorrect. John is not performing email spoofing. In email spoofing, an attacker sends emails after writing another person's mailing address in the from field of the email id.

NEW QUESTION 17

Pervasive IS controls can be used across all the internal departments and external contractors to define the direction and behavior required for the technology to function properly. When these controls are implemented properly, which of the following areas show the reliability improvement? (Choose three)

• A. Hardware development
• B. Software development
• C. Security administration
• D. Disaster recovery

Answer: BCD

Explanation:

Pervasive IS controls can be used across all the internal departments and external contractors. If the Pervasive IS controls are implemented properly, it improves the reliability of the following: Software development System implementation Overall service delivery Security administration Disaster recovery Business continuity planning Answer A is incorrect. Pervasive IS controls do not have any relation with the reliability of the hardware development.

NEW QUESTION 18
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