Free CS0-003 Exam Braindumps

Pass your CompTIA CySA+ Certification Beta Exam exam with these free Questions and Answers

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QUESTION 1

An organization conducted a web application vulnerability assessment against the corporate website, and the following output was observed:
CS0-003 dumps exhibit
Which of the following tuning recommendations should the security analyst share?

  1. A. Set an HttpOnlvflaq to force communication by HTTPS
  2. B. Block requests without an X-Frame-Options header
  3. C. Configure an Access-Control-Allow-Origin header to authorized domains
  4. D. Disable the cross-origin resource sharing header

Correct Answer: B
The output shows that the web application is vulnerable to clickjacking attacks, which allow an attacker to overlay a hidden frame on top of a legitimate page and trick users into clicking on malicious links. Blocking requests without an X-Frame-Options header can prevent this attack by instructing the browser to not display the page within a frame.

QUESTION 2

A security analyst performs a vulnerability scan. Based on the metrics from the scan results, the analyst must prioritize which hosts to patch. The analyst runs the tool and receives the following output:
CS0-003 dumps exhibit
Which of the following hosts should be patched first, based on the metrics?

  1. A. host01
  2. B. host02
  3. C. host03
  4. D. host04

Correct Answer: C
Host03 should be patched first, based on the metrics, as it has the highest risk score and the highest number of critical vulnerabilities. The risk score is calculated by multiplying the CVSS score by the exposure factor, which is the percentage of systems that are vulnerable to the exploit. Host03 has a risk score of 10 x 0.9 = 9, which is higher than any other host. Host03 also has 5 critical vulnerabilities, which are the most severe and urgent to fix, as they can allow remote code execution, privilege escalation, or data loss. The other hosts have lower risk scores and lower numbers of critical vulnerabilities, so they can be patched later.

QUESTION 3

A zero-day command injection vulnerability was published. A security administrator is analyzing the following logs for evidence of adversaries attempting to exploit the vulnerability:
CS0-003 dumps exhibit
Which of the following log entries provides evidence of the attempted exploit?

  1. A. Log entry 1
  2. B. Log entry 2
  3. C. Log entry 3
  4. D. Log entry 4

Correct Answer: D
Log entry 4 shows an attempt to exploit the zero-day command injection vulnerability by appending a malicious command (;cat /etc/passwd) to the end of a legitimate request (/cgi-bin/index.cgi?name=John). This command would try to read the contents of the /etc/passwd file, which contains user account information, an could lead to further compromise of the system. The other log entries do not show any signs of command injection, as they do not contain any special characters or commands that could alter the intended behavior of the application. Official References:
CS0-003 dumps exhibit https://www.imperva.com/learn/application-security/command-injection/
CS0-003 dumps exhibit https://www.zerodayinitiative.com/advisories/published/

QUESTION 4

A cybersecurity analyst notices unusual network scanning activity coming from a country that the company does not do business with. Which of the following is the best mitigation technique?

  1. A. Geoblock the offending source country
  2. B. Block the IP range of the scans at the network firewall.
  3. C. Perform a historical trend analysis and look for similar scanning activity.
  4. D. Block the specific IP address of the scans at the network firewall

Correct Answer: A
Geoblocking is the best mitigation technique for unusual network scanning activity coming from a country that the company does not do business with, as it can prevent any potential attacks or data breaches from that country. Geoblocking is the practice of restricting access to websites or services based on geographic location, usually by blocking IP addresses associated with a certain country or region. Geoblocking can help reduce the overall attack surface and protect against malicious actors who may be trying to exploit vulnerabilities or steal information. The other options are not as effective as geoblocking, as they may not block all the possible sources of the scanning activity, or they may not address the root cause of the problem. Official References:
CS0-003 dumps exhibit https://www.blumira.com/geoblocking/
CS0-003 dumps exhibit https://www.avg.com/en/signal/geo-blocking

QUESTION 5

Which of the following best describes the reporting metric that should be utilized when measuring the degree to which a system, application, or user base is affected by an uptime availability outage?

  1. A. Timeline
  2. B. Evidence
  3. C. Impact
  4. D. Scope

Correct Answer: C
The correct answer is C. Impact.
The impact metric is the best way to measure the degree to which a system, application, or user base is affected by an uptime availability outage. The impact metric quantifies the consequences of the outage in terms of lost revenue, productivity, reputation, customer satisfaction, or other relevant factors. The impact metric can help prioritize the recovery efforts and justify the resources needed to restore the service1.
The other options are not the best ways to measure the degree to which a system, application, or user base is affected by an uptime availability outage. The timeline metric (A) measures the duration and frequency of the outage, but not its effects. The evidence metric (B) measures the sources and types of data that can be used to investigate and analyze the outage, but not its effects. The scope metric (D) measures the extent and severity of the outage, but not its effects.

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