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Pass your System Security Certified Practitioner (SSCP) exam with these free Questions and Answers

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QUESTION 6

- (Topic 4)
What is called the probability that a threat to an information system will materialize?

  1. A. Threat
  2. B. Risk
  3. C. Vulnerability
  4. D. Hole

Correct Answer: B
The Answer Risk: The potential for harm or loss to an information system or network; the probability that a threat will materialize.
Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, 2001, John Wiley & Sons, Pages 16, 32.

QUESTION 7

- (Topic 5)
Which of the following would best describe certificate path validation?

  1. A. Verification of the validity of all certificates of the certificate chain to the root certificate
  2. B. Verification of the integrity of the associated root certificate
  3. C. Verification of the integrity of the concerned private key
  4. D. Verification of the revocation status of the concerned certificate

Correct Answer: A
With the advent of public key cryptography (PKI), it is now possible to communicate securely with untrusted parties over the Internet without prior arrangement. One of the necessities arising from such communication is the ability to accurately verify someone's identity (i.e. whether the person you are communicating with is indeed the person who he/she claims to be). In order to be able to perform identity check for a given entity, there should be a fool-proof method of “binding” the entity's public key to its unique domain name (DN).
A X.509 digital certificate issued by a well known certificate authority (CA), like Verisign, Entrust, Thawte, etc., provides a way of positively identifying the entity by placing trust on the CA to have performed the necessary verifications. A X.509 certificate is a cryptographically sealed data object that contains the entity's unique DN, public key, serial number, validity period, and possibly other extensions.
The Windows Operating System offers a Certificate Viewer utility which allows you to double-click on any certificate and review its attributes in a human-readable format. For instance, the "General" tab in the Certificate Viewer Window (see below) shows who the certificate was issued to as well as the certificate's issuer, validation period and usage functions.
SSCP dumps exhibit
Certification Path graphic
Certification Path graphic
The “Certification Path” tab contains the hierarchy for the chain of certificates. It allows you to select the certificate issuer or a subordinate certificate and then click on “View Certificate” to open the certificate in the Certificate Viewer.
Each end-user certificate is signed by its issuer, a trusted CA, by taking a hash value (MD5 or SHA-1) of ASN.1 DER (Distinguished Encoding Rule) encoded object and then encrypting the resulting hash with the issuer’s private key (CA's Private Key) which is a digital signature. The encrypted data is stored in the “signatureValue” attribute of the entity’s (CA) public certificate.
Once the certificate is signed by the issuer, a party who wishes to communicate with this entity can then take the entity’s public certificate and find out who the issuer of the certificate is. Once the issuer’s of the certificate (CA) is identified, it would be possible to decrypt the value of the “signatureValue” attribute in the entity's certificate using the issuer’s public key to retrieve the hash value. This hash value will be compared with the independently calculated hash on the entity's certificate. If the two hash values match, then the information contained within the certificate must not have been altered and, therefore, one must trust that the CA has done enough background check to ensure that all details in the entity’s certificate are accurate.
The process of cryptographically checking the signatures of all certificates in the certificate chain is called “key chaining”. An additional check that is essential to key chaining is verifying that the value of the "subjectKeyIdentifier” extension in one certificate matches the same in the subsequent certificate.
Similarly, the process of comparing the subject field of the issuer certificate to the issuer field of the subordinate certificate is called “name chaining”. In this process, these values must match for each pair of adjacent certificates in the certification path in order to guarantee that the path represents unbroken chain of entities relating directly to one another and that it has no missing links.
The two steps above are the steps to validate the Certification Path by ensuring the validity of all certificates of the certificate chain to the root certificate as described in the two paragraphs above.
Reference(s) used for this question:
FORD, Warwick & BAUM, Michael S., Secure Electronic Commerce: Building the Infrastructure for Digital Signatures and Encryption (2nd Edition), 2000, Prentice Hall PTR, Page 262.
and
https://www.tibcommunity.com/docs/DOC-2197

QUESTION 8

- (Topic 6)
What protocol is used to match an IP address to the appropriate hardware address of the packet's destination so it can be sent?

  1. A. Routing tables
  2. B. Address resolution protocol (ARP)
  3. C. Reverse address resolution protocol (RARP)
  4. D. Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP)

Correct Answer: B
The Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) is used to match an IP address to an Ethernet address so the packet can be sent to the appropriate node.
Shon Harris in her book says:
MAC and IP addresses must be properly mapped so they can be correctly resolved. This happens through the Address Resolution Protocol (ARP). When the data link layer receives a frame, the network layer has already attached the destination IP address to it, but the data link layer cannot understand the IP address and thus invokes ARP for help.
ARP broadcasts a frame requesting the MAC address that corresponds with the destination IP address. Each computer on the subnet receives this broadcast frame, and all but the computer that has the requested IP address ignore it.
The computer that has the destination IP address responds with its MAC address. Now ARP knows what hardware address corresponds with that specific IP address. The data link layer takes the frame, adds the hardware address to it, and passes it on to the physical layer, which enables the frame to hit the wire and go to the destination computer.
ARP maps the hardware address and associated IP address and stores this mapping in its table for a predefined amount of time. This caching is done so that when another frame destined for the same IP address needs to hit the wire, ARP does not need to broadcast its request again. It just looks in its table for this information.
Man-In-The-Middle attack
Because ARP does not require authentication, an attacker could place bogus entries into the ARP cache of a remote host (gratuitous ARP replies) to carry out attacks, such as a man-in-the-middle attacks. This attack is called ARP poisoning.
The following answers were incorrect:
RARP is used to match an Ethernet address to an IP address.
ICMP is a management protocol whose function is to send message between network devices.
Routing tables are used by routers to choose the appropriate interface to route packets. Reference(s) used for this question:
Harris, Shon (2012-10-25). CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, 6th Edition, Chapter 6 Telecommunications and Network Security, Pages 580-581 or on the Kindle edition look around Locations 12298-12306. McGraw-Hill. Kindle Edition.
and
Schneiter, Andrew (2013-04-15). Official (ISC)2 Guide to the CISSP CBK , Third Edition: Telecommunications and Network Security, Page 342.

QUESTION 9

- (Topic 3)
Which of the following is most likely to be useful in detecting intrusions?

  1. A. Access control lists
  2. B. Security labels
  3. C. Audit trails
  4. D. Information security policies

Correct Answer: C
If audit trails have been properly defined and implemented, they will record information that can assist in detecting intrusions.
Source: HARRIS, Shon, All-In-One CISSP Certification Exam Guide, McGraw- Hill/Osborne, 2002, Chapter 4: Access Control (page 186).

QUESTION 10

- (Topic 4)
Which of the following proves or disproves a specific act through oral testimony based on information gathered through the witness's five senses?

  1. A. Direct evidence.
  2. B. Circumstantial evidence.
  3. C. Conclusive evidence.
  4. D. Corroborative evidence.

Correct Answer: A
Direct evidence can prove a fact all by itself and does not need backup information to refer to. When using direct evidence, presumptions are not required. One example of direct evidence is the testimony of a witness who saw a crime take place. Although this oral evidence would be secondary in nature, meaning a case could not rest on just it alone, it is also direct evidence, meaning the lawyer does not necessarily need to provide other evidence to back it up. Direct evidence often is based on information gathered from a witness’s five senses.
The following answers are incorrect:
Circumstantial evidence. Is incorrect because Circumstantial evidence can prove an intermediate fact that can then be used to deduce or assume the existence of another fact. Conclusive evidence. Is incorrect because Conclusive evidence is irrefutable and cannot be contradicted. Conclusive evidence is very strong all by itself and does not require corroboration.
Corroborative evidence. Is incorrect because Corroborative evidence is supporting
evidence used to help prove an idea or point. It cannot stand on its own, but is used as a supplementary tool to help prove a primary piece of evidence.

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